CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-180
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Q&As: 291

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Latest Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 29
At any given distance from an antenna, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between the gain of an omnidirectional antenna and coverage?
A. The highest gain antenna will always provide the strongest signal
B. Gain is inversely related to vertical coverage
C. Gain is directly related to both vertical and horizontal coverage
D. Gain of an omnidirectional antenna has no effect on coverage
300-180 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
For planning a mesh link, which information is NOT required to have available for using the Aruba Outdoor Planner?
A. For directional antennas, expected directions between mounting locations
B. Desired Throughput on the Mesh Backhaul
C. Client Device info (power and typical antenna gain if available)
D. Locations believed to need bridging/mesh links due to lack of available Ethernet or fiber
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of “Design Margin” in the outdoor planner?
A. Higher design margin will decrease the displayed distance for client coverage
B. Increasing design margin will increase the predicted signal levels at the AP and client
C. At any given distance increasing design margin is added safety margin (in dB) for predicted vs measured results
D. Different design margins may be appropriate for client coverage vs. mesh links
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which statement best describes the use of EIRP limits in the outdoor planner?
A. The outdoor planner will automatically reduce AP output power based on the antenna selected and cable losses to ensure the displayed results are not based on unapproved EIRP levels
B. When preparing an outdoor plan, the user must ensure that EIRP levels are not exceeded by the utility
C. Before beginning a plan, the user must enter the maximum EIRP allowed for their regulatory domain
D. EIRP is not used by the outdoor planner
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
For 802.11n planning, which statement most accurately describes the results produced by the outdoor planner (choose one):
A. Maximum results presented require ability of the environment (physical channel) to support 2 spatial streams
B. 5 GHz models will always show higher available throughput
C. The use of a “short guard interval” will improve security but may still leave some gaps in protection
D. The results presented account for losses due to trees and buildings shown in Google Earth
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the best use of the imagery in Google Earth vs. a Facility Plan or CAD drawing for outdoor planning?
A. Google Earth imagery is useful for finding mounting locations
B. When possible, it is recommended to reference all locations to a scaled Facility Plan or CAD drawing and use the Google Earth aerial imagery for background information only
C. Google Earth imagery is usually more current than customer provided drawings and should be used as the primary reference
D. Google Earth aerial photos are easier to use for picking mounting locations
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Before uploading a kmz file to the Aruba Outdoor planner, what is the only folder that is REQUIRED to be present?
A. “Locations” folder containing placemarks
B. “Map” folder containing Google Maps
C. “CAD Overlay” containing the customer CAD file overlay
D. “Favorites” containing all of the above
300-180 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the different operation modes of the radio interface of the Aruba mesh router?
A. access, backhaul, and client
B. a, b, and g
C. access, gateway, and none
D. 2.4 G, 4.9 G, and 5.8 G
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the maximum number of SSIDs per radio that an Aruba mesh router supports when it operates in access mode?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
300-180 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of WDS links per radio that the Aruba mesh router supports?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which routing protocol is used for internal routing by Aruba mesh router?
A. Static
B. AWR
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
In the output of the “show ip route” command on the Aruba mesh router, O means OSPF, and A means AWR. Which route is used as the destination of 10.10.0.2 mesh node?
A. O 10.0.0.0/8
B. A 10.0.0.0/8
C. O 10.10.0.0/24
D. A 10.10.0.0/24
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
How many gateways can the AWR protocol support?
A. only one gateway
B. only two gateways
C. only three gateways
D. multi-gateways
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? (Choose three)
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
E. Logging level debugging security process vpn
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 43
The screen captures below show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
300-180 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. Employee
B. Guest
C. Captive Portal
D. Logon
E. No role will be assigned
Correct Answer: E

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-165
Exam Name: DCII Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCII)
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 165

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Latest Cisco 300-165 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (September 2017)#

QUESTION 1
What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
300-165 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or
Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?”
E. ” ”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?

A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-165 vce Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 18
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Correct Answer: D

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 182

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Latest Cisco 642-998 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#16-44

QUESTION 16
Which three actions can be performed in a data center access layer based on a unified fabric? (Choose
three.)
A. QoS traffic classification
B. QoS traffic queuing
C. routing summarization
D. IGMP snooping
E. routing redistribution
F. traffic compression
642-998 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Which two options are valid for Layer 3 connectivity between Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM and VEM?
(Choose two.)
A. an out-of-band management interface
B. a dedicated control interface
C. a virtual Ethernet interface
D. a dedicated packet interface
E. a VMware vCenter virtual machine virtual interface
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
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642-998 dumps

Which item is a valid IPv6 Link Local address?
A. 2001:4070:1:1408::2
B. fe80::41dc:79e1:5c7b:b270
C. d772:4f0b:aaec:e8f0:fde9::8dcd:a2ec
D. 0718:564a:dc94::9a34:9fc6:5b3b
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP

642-998 dumps

Correct Answer:
642-998 dumps

QUESTION 20
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access
layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
642-998 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 24
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
642-998 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which data center monitoring tool can collect and display per port Layer 2 statistics?
A. Cisco DCNM

B. Cisco NAM
C. Cisco NetFlow
D. Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which document is the least relevant as an output deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. configurations
D. migration plan
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution
requirements?
A. server virtualization
B. desktop virtualization
C. distributed computing
D. private cloud
E. power efficiency
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which item can be used as an alternative reconnaissance tool to the NetApp OnCommand Balance
application?
A. NetIQ PlateSpin
B. VKernel vOPS
C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
D. VMware vCenter Orchestrator plug-in
E. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which design steps could be considered optional?
A. audit
B. solution sizing
C. analysis
D. deployment provision
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which technology differentiates a data center designed around Cisco equipment versus another vendor?
A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. VSANs
D. FCoE
642-998 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 32
The ANSI restriction that only 239 Fibre Channel domains are allowed per SAN fabric creates challenges
for the designer working on a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network.
Which two approaches can the designer utilize to restrict the number of Fibre Channel domains below
239? (Choose two.)
A. Daisy chain up to 100 core Fibre Channel switches, leaving 139 domains for the network edge.
B. Assign a domain ID for each blade switch and top-of-rack access layer switch.
C. Use NPV to cause a fabric or blade switch to appear as a host to the core Fibre Channel switch.
D. Migrate to FCoE to eliminate the need for Fibre Channel domains.
E. Utilize VSANs to allow scaling well beyond 239 domain IDs.
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 33
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified
Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 34
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 35
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center
environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data
center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines

C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
642-998 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 42
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 43
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?
(Choose two.)
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: AC

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