CCNA Wireless, Cisco

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Latest Cisco 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

QUESTION 240
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210-060 dumps

When a client associates to ExamSSlD, which network address will be assigned?
A. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 10.10.10.0.
B. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 172.16.23.0.
C. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0 address pools.
D. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
E. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 241
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 242
210-060 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a SSID to utilize the management interface on the WLC. The management interface is configured with an untagged VLAN in the wireless controller interface settings. The controller is connected to a neighboring switch via the interface shown in the diagram. Which VLAN will traffic coming from the newly created SSID use to traverse the wired network?
A. 1
B. 20

C. 44
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 243
Drag the propagation behavior on the left to the corresponding environment on the right.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

Correct Answer:
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 244
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 245
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

QUESTION 246
210-060 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 247
If the probability of hot weather, given a hot weather forecast, is 50%, how much would the vendor be willing to pay for the forecast?
A. US $600
B. US $300
C. US $1,000
D. US $500
200-355 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the weather is hot and coffee is served, the vendor earns US $1,900. If the vendor knowsthe weather will be hot, she would sell soft drinks and make U $2,500, a US $600 increase. Thus, the vendor should be willing to pay up to U $600 for perfect information regarding hotweather. However, if the forecasts are only 50% accurate, the information is not perfect. Accordingly, the vendor should be willing to pay only U $300 the U $600 potential increasein profits 50%) for the sometimes accurate forecasts.
QUESTION 248
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production cost) ‘: enters. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, withthe sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a -gear ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of rawinventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables asraw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goodssold.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship amongvariables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained interms of one or more independent variables for example, raw material costs, employees,overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships amongquantitative variables.
QUESTION 249
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October:
The correlation coefficient between variables x and is nearest to:
A. 1.00
B. -1.00
C. 0.50
D. 0.00
200-355 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A correlation coefficient of -1.00 describes a perfect inverse correlation; that is, theobservations fall exactly along a straight line and the value of one variable increasesdecreases) as the other decreases increases). In the example to the left, the equation of thestraight line is:
QUESTION 250
A company} is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically, 30% of the company’s sales are cash sales. The remaining 70% are credit sales with the following collection pattern.  Sales for the first five months of the coming year are forecast as follows. For the month of April, the total cash receipts from sales and collections on account would be:
A. US $3,729,968
B. US $3,781,600
C. US $4,025,200
D. US $4,408,000
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cash receipts for April equal April’s cash sales US $4,000,000 x 30°l0 = US $1,200,000), 40% of April’s credit sales, and 580/o of March’s credit sales. Consequently,total cash receipts equal US $3,78-1,600 [$1,200,000 + $4,000,000 40°lax 70°/o) +$8,600,000 68°f070%)].A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached tothe bank itself and one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested indetermining the average waiting times of
customers and has developed a model based onrandom numbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and thetime customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bathservice windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached windowattached to the bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. Thelone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, theone at the attached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 251
The problem just described is beast approved by use of which quantitative method?
A. Integrated autoregressive-moving average ARIMA) modeling.
B. Exponential smoothing, multiple parameters.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Linear programming.
200-355 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two basic casts are involved in queuing waiting-line) models: 1) the cast of providingservice including facility casts and operating casts), and 2) the cast of idle resources waitingin line. The latter may be a direct cast if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cast inthe case of waiting customers. The objective of the queuing theory is to minimize the totalcast of the system, including bath service and waiting casts, far a given rate of arrivals. Thisminimization occurs at the paint where the cast of waiting is balanced by the cast ofproviding service. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to thebank itself and one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested indetermining the average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based onrandom numbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and thetime customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bathservice windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached windowattached to the bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. Thelone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, theone at the attached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 252
The techniques used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simultaneously theory.
B. Integrated autoaggressive-moving average ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using acomputer. Despite the power of mathematics, many problems cannot be solved by knownanalytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of theirinteractions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may beinvestigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model based on theprobability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If thisprocess is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model willbe obtained. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 253
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.

200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results ofthe experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model — often usinghistorical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model ishistorically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the modelinvalid for the future.
QUESTION 254
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confrontedwith an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players andthe algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser tothe winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possiblefor both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical modelshave been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.

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210-065 dumps
Latest Cisco 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#
QUESTION 12
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
Refer to the exhibits. An administrator needs to perform a factory reset on a C-Series endpoint. What are two valid ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.

D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
You have replaced an HBA and are trying to add it to an existing zone using the FC switch GUI interface. You are unable to do so. Why is this happening?
A. The OS login has not occurred.
B. The Web login has not occurred.
C. The fabric login has not occurred.
D. The port login has occurred.
210-065 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
A number of servers are experiencing slower than expected performance. Analyzing the server, switch, and storage logs do not indicate any issues. You have been asked by the customer to address this issue. What will improve performance?
A. Increase the current queue depth setting from 1.
B. Change the frame size from 2148 bytes,
C. Decrease the buffer-to-buffer credits setting.
D. Enable write caching functionality for the device driver.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A company wants to implement a database which requires a storage subsystem with no more than 2 ms write latency and 1 ms read latency. Which type of drive would you use?
A. SATA
B. FC
C. SSD
D. ATA
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
A colleague asks you if the added cost of using encrypting tape drives and sending the tapes off- site is warranted, since your IT organization already has large security investments such as firewalls and database table encryption. What is your response?
A. The correct firewall rule set would make encrypted tape drives obsolete, but there has not always been strong confidence in the firewall administrators.
B. Encrypted database tables only protect data against inappropriate access by super users such as database or server administrators abusing root privileges.
C. Encrypt tape drives as part of a defense in depth strategy to ensure that one security mechanism being compromised does not expose all information to a malicious user.
D. The existing firewalls and database table encryption do not replace encrypted tape drives, but implementing an intrusion protection system (IPS) will make tape encryption obsolete.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
The latest storage utilization report shows that 80% of the current 500 TB of enterprise storage is allocated. The storage administrator must specify the amount of additional storage needed for local copies for approximately half of the active storage. How much additional storage should the administrator request?
A. 400 TB
B. 300 TB
C. 200 TB
D. 100 TB
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is a common protocol used in cloud communications?
A. WebDAV
B. SCP
C. HTTP
D. CDMI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which RAID level is shown?
A. RAID 4
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 6
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
A customer has upgraded all switches in their redundant fabrics during a single maintenance window. Shortly after the upgrades are completed on the core switches, all servers lose access to all SAN attached storage. What would have prevented this scenario?
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Change or risk management
D. Clustered servers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, what are the two largest risks to a highly available solution? (Choose two.)
A. Only two adapters per controller
B. Only two adapters on the server
C. Only one server
D. Only one switch
210-065 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 27
The storage administrator is required to create five zones within the FC SAN. Which Fibre Channel server would be used to do this?
A. Fabric Login server
B. Name server
C. Management server

D. Fabric Controller
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
You want to visibly verify FC port initialization by reading an analyzer trace. Your objective is to find the frames associated with the initialization protocol to ensure that the FC device is operating correctly during the login process, to be recognized as part of the switched fabric, and appear in a directory of attached FC devices. What must all Fibre Channel devices do to accomplish this?
A. Log in using the Name server.
B. Log in using the Fabric Controller.
C. Log in using the Management server.
D. Log in using the Fabric Login server.
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have been hired to consult with storage administrators that are working with zoning and naming convention consistency issues. There are numerous types of zoning methods available using standards that also include aliasing. You want to use a method that guarantees unique global port identification. What accomplishes this goal?
A. WWPN
B. domain_id:port_#
C. Alias
D. Zone set
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the protocol stack shown in the exhibit?
A. FCoE
B. SCSI
C. InfiniBand
D. Fibre Channel
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
You have a file system which allows data and metadata segregation. How should you accelerate read I/O on the file system while keeping costs low?
A. Assign the fastest storage to the data portion of the file system.
B. Assign the fastest storage to the metadata portion of the file system.
C. Assign fast storage to the data and the metadata portions of the file system.
D. Keep the file system very small.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
A company has a storage subsystem that supports a variety of replication options. They have purchased an identical array and placed it at a secondary site 50 km away and will provide the shortest RPO. Which statement is correct?
A. Asynchronous replication is the only replication option for distances over 50 km.
B. Synchronous replication is the only replication option for distances over 50 km.
C. Snapshots allow for data to be quickly captured, copied, and mounted from one storage array to another and is the ideal solution for all distances.
D. Synchronous replication will keep the arrays closely synchronized and is ideal for short distances.
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Your company’s Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires that no more then one hour’s worth of data be lost in case of a system crash. The data must also be restored within 10 hours. Which two RTO/RPO combinations meet the SLA? (Choose two.)
A. RTO 1 hour, RPO 10 hours
B. RTO 10 hours, RPO 1 hour
C. RTO 9 hours, RPO 1 hour
D. RTO 1 hour, RPO 9 hours
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which backup type is represented?
A. Server-free backup
B. Cloud backup
C. LAN-free backup
D. LAN backup

210-065 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which type of a backup changes the archive bit?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Block-level
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You have a server which is booting from a SAN. After adding new SAN storage to a host, the host will not boot from the SAN. What will resolve this problem?
A. LUN masking
B. Persistent binding
C. Trunking
D. Multiplex binding
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
The CIO would like to segregate management device IP network traffic from server IP network traffic within the data center to limit potential security threats. What would be used to accomplish this?
A. IPsec
B. Firewall
C. VLANs
D. PKI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You have a new storage array with the following drive types:
1. SAS (6 Gbps)
2. SSD
3. SATA (6 Gbps)
4. FC(4Gbps)
You need to decide which drive type to use based on speed, cost, and drive availability for your Tier 1 storage. Which type of drive would you choose?
A. SSD
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. FC
210-065 dump 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack C.
XPath injection attack D.
None of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 40 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
210-065 pdf 
Answer: A
QUESTION 41 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 42 An alternative to using a is to use a .
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
210-065 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION 43 Service A’s logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A’s memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D
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300-320 dumps
Latest Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

QUESTION 10
What three benefits exist when utilizing Cisco Nexus technology for implementing a unified fabric design? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cabling
B. fewer adapters
C. consolidated switching
D. increased bandwidth
E. enhanced redundancy
F. improved convergence

300-320 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 11
What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?
A. 5
B. 30
C. 60
D. 99
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which multicast address must be available for FHRP advertisements in a multivendor environment?
A. 224.0.0.9
B. 224.0.0.18
C. 224.0.0.102
D. 224.0.0.2
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
An organization is designing the IP allocation of a new site. It currently has 12 separate IP segments. Each segment must be /24, accommodate 25% of growth, and be easily summarized. Which summarized IP block can be subnetted to meet these requirements?
A. /18
B. /19
C. /20
D. /21
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which three virtualization categories are in campus networks? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 virtualization
B. Layer 3 clustering
C. network virtualization
D. device virtualization
E. network clustering
F. device clustering
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 15
What data center network layer provides service module integration, Layer 2 domain definitions, and default gateway redundancy?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. edge

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the ROC curve:
As you move along the curve, what changes?
A. The priors in the population
B. The true negative rate in the population
C. The proportion of events in the training data
D. The probability cutoff for scoring
300-320  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values. Which statement  and option combination will generate these statistics?
A. Scoredata=valid1 out=roc;
B. Scoredata=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1resp(event= ‘1’) = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1resp(event”1″) = gender region/ out=roc;
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
Which SAS program will divide the original data set into 60% training and 40% validation data sets, stratified by county?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Refer to the lift chart:
At a depth of 0.1, Lift = 3.14. What does this mean?
A. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.
B. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.
C. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 timesgreater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
D. Selecting the observations with a response probability of atleast 10% should result in 3.14times greater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the lift chart:
What does the reference line at lift = 1 corresponds to?
A. The predicted lift for the best 50% of validation data cases
B. The predicted lift if the entire population is scored as event cases
C. The predicted lift if none of the population are scored as event cases
D. The predicted lift if 50% of the population are randomly scored as event cases
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Suppose training data are oversampled in the event group to make the number of events and non-events roughly equal. A logistic regression is run and the probabilities are output to a data set NEW and given the variable name PE. A decision rule considered is, “Classify data as an event if probability is greater than 0.5.” Also the data set NEW contains a variable TG that indicates whether there is an event (1=Event, 0= No event). The following SAS program was used.
What does this program calculate?
A. Depth

B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Positive predictive value
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit:
The plots represent two models, A and B, being fit to the same two data sets, training and validation. Model A is 90.5% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 75.5% accurate at doing the same on validation data. Model B is 83% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 78.3% accurate at doing the same on the validation data. Which of the two models should be selected and why?
A. Model A. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model B on training data.
B. Model A. It performs better on the boundary for the training data.
C. Model B. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
D. Model B. It is simpler with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
300-320  vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Assume a $10 cost for soliciting a non-responder and a $200 profit for soliciting a responder. The logistic regression model gives a probability score named P_R on a SAS data set called VALID. The VALID data set contains the responder variable Pinch, a 1/0 variable coded as 1 for responder. Customers will be solicited when their probability score is more than 0.05. Which SAS program computes the profit for each customer in the data set VALID?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
In order to perform honest assessment on a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between training, validation, and testing data?
A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%
B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%
C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%
D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit:
Based upon the comparative ROC plot for two competing models, which is the champion model and why?
A. Candidate 1, because the area outside the curve is greater
B. Candidate 2, because the area under the curve is greater
C. Candidate 1, because it is closer to the diagonal reference curve
D. Candidate 2, because it shows less over fit than Candidate 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
300-320 dumps Answer: AC
QUESTION 29 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine. When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently logged in users.
Answer: D
QUESTION 30 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-320 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 31 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E
QUESTION 32 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
  been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
300-320  vce Answer: E
QUESTION 33 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE
QUESTION 34 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
  between a dialup client and a dialup server.
300-320 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 35 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000 network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a DC.
Answer: A

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200-310 dumps

Latest Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

QUESTION 144
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
200-310 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 145
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 146
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. VSS: Virtual Switching System
B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 148
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the distribution and access layer?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 150
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. You create an application using the .NET Framework. You need to use the regular expressions to provide a concise and flexible means for identifying strings of text of interest, such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters. Which operation will you use to construct the regular expressions? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Quantification
B. Grouping
C. Alternation
D. Phishing
200-310 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 151
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate names for the application with three characters that are either “hat” or “cat”. Which of the following regular expressions will you use to accomplish the task?
A. [hc]at$
B. ^[hc]at
C. [hc]at
D. .at
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 152
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have created an application for the company. The application uses string concatenation to gather data from multiple email messages, and format the data before displaying it. You want to ensure that the data displays as quickly as possible. Which of the following actions will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Write code that uses the Concat() method of the String object.
B. Write code that uses the Substring() method of the String object.
C. Write code that uses the plus-sign (+) operator to concatenate the strings.
D. Write code that uses the Append() method of the StringBuilder object.
200-310 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 153
You work as a Web Application Developer for SunInfo Inc. The company uses Visual Studio 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You use foreach loops to retrieve data from a collection. Now, you want to use LINQ queries instead of foreach loops. Choose the advantages of using LINQ queries over foreach loops. A.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 154
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are developing an application that manages sports teams. When a user queries details about a particular team, the id and name of each member of the team must be stored as a single collection. You must create the collection of team members in the most efficient manner, in a manner that guarantees type safety, and in a manner that will require the least amount of code to retrieve and work with the data in the collection. Which code segment should you choose?
A. string[] team = new string[] {
“1, Bob Jones”,
“2, Jim Smith”, “3, Shannon Horn”,
“4, Brandon Searles”, “5, Jack Hill”,
“6, Brian Kirkland”, “7, Sean Calahan”,
“8, Mark Banker”};
B. ArrayList team = new ArrayList();
team.Add(“1, Bob Jones”);
team.Add(“2, Jim Smith”);
team.Add(“3, Shannon Horn”);
team.Add(“4, Brandon Searles”);
team.Add(“5, Jack Hill”);
team.Add(“6, Brian Kirkland”);
team.Add(“7, Sean Calahan”);
team.Add(“8, Mark Banker”);
C. Hashtable team = new Hashtable();
team.Add(1, “Bob Jones”);
team.Add(2, “Jim Smith”);
team.Add(3, “Shannon Horn”);
team.Add(4, “Brandon Searles”);
team.Add(5, “Jack Hill”);
team.Add(6, “Brian Kirkland”);
team.Add(7, “Sean Calahan”);
team.Add(8, “Mark Banker”);
D. Dictionary<int, string> team = new Dictionary<int, string>();
team.Add(1, “Bob Jones”);
team.Add(2, “Jim Smith”);
team.Add(3, “Shannon Horn”);
team.Add(4, “Brandon Searles”);
team.Add(5, “Jack Hill”);
team.Add(6, “Brian Kirkland”);
team.Add(7, “Sean Calahan”);
team.Add(8, “Mark Banker”);
200-310 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 155
Holmes works as a Programmer for HiTech Institute. He develops an ASP.NET application named LibraryRecord by using Visual Studio .NET. The LibraryRecord application uses a SQL Server database named Database1. Database1 contains two tables: Students and Books. The Students table comprises three columns: StudentID, StudentName, and BookID. The Books table comprises two columns: BooksID and BooksName. Holmes creates a stored procedure that returns the records of all students who borrowed books from the institute. What will Holmes do to retrieve the records of the issued books most efficiently?
A. Use the INNER JOIN keyword in his query.
B. Use the INNER JOIN keyword more than once in his query.
C. Use the LEFT OUTER JOIN keyword in his query.
D. Use the WHERE clause in his query.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 156
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You create an application named MyApplication using Visual C# .NET. You use the Mutex class for synchronization among threads. You create three threads to enter the protected area one by one. This means that if one thread is already in the protected area, no other thread is allowed to enter in the protected area. When you execute the application, it gives the following output: As you can see in the above code window, all the three threads enter the protected area at the  same time. Drag and drop the appropriate statements that will allow the threads to enter the protected area one by one.
200-310 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 157
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Windows application using .NET Framework 3.5. The application uses a SQL Server 2008 database on the network. You use ADO.NET Data Services that exposes data as resources that are addressable by URIs. You access and change data by using the semantics of representational state transfer (REST), specifically the standard HTTP verbs of GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE. You must ensure that when a service violates any other constraint, the service cannot strictly be referred to as RESTful. What will you do?
A. Use the layered system constraint.
B. Use the code on demand constraint.
C. Use the client-server constraint.
D. Use the stateless constraint.
E. Use the cacheable constraint.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 158
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company. You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following code in the application:
String s1 = “C rtify”;
String s2 = “c rtify”;
String s3 = “c rtify”;
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo;
Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1, s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
200-310 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 159
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown below.
string str1 = “ABC”;
string str2 = “u”;
str2 += “Certify”;
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?

A. True
True
True
B. True
False
True
C. False
False
False
D. False
True
False
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 160
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. You create a SQL server database named DATA1 that will manage the payroll system of the company. DATA1 contains two tables named EmployeeData and Department. While EmployeeData records detailed information of the employees, Department stores information about the available departments in the company. EmployeeData consists of columns that include EmpID, EmpName, DtOBrth, DtOJoin, DeptNo, Desig, BasicSal, etc. You want to ensure that each employee ID is unique and is not shared between two or more employees. You also want to ensure that the employees enter only valid department numbers in the DeptNo column. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Define views in the database.
B. Add constraints to the EmployeeData table.
C. Define triggers in the EmployeeData table.
D. Define indexes in the EmployeeData table.
E. Add stored procedures by using Transact-SQL queries.
200-310 exam Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 161
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. 91. The application uses ASP.NET AJAX, and you need to deploy it in a Web  farm environment. You are required to configure SessionState for the application. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task?
A. <sessionState mode=”InProc” cookieless=”UseDeviceProfile”/>
B. <sessionState mode=”InProc” cookieless=”UseCookies”/>
C. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer” cookieless=”UseUri” sqlConnectionString=”Integrated Security=SSPI;data source=MySqlServer;”/>
D. <sessionState mode=”SQLServer” cookieless=”false” sqlConnectionString=”Integrated Security=SSPI;data source=MySqlServer;”/>
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 162
You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access security policies from a batch file?
A. GacUtil.exe
B. StoreAdm.exe
C. Caspol.exe
D. Tlbimp.exe
E. Sn.exe
200-310 dumps Answer: C

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Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

Question No : 136 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 dumps What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
200-125 exam 
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.
Question No : 137 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the MAC header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a packet is destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet’s network layer header (such as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain source and destination network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s MAC address in the MAC header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the following steps:
1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header. The router checks the packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and examines the network-layer header to determine what to do with the packet.

2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too far to be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is the maximum number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop count of 15, the router discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value. Unlike the IPX hop count, which increments as the packet is forwarded through each router, the IP TTL value decrements as the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router discards the packet. A router cannot decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists available networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number), and the distance to those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet, the router must build a new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows 95/98 workstation, type ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC header for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the final destination’s MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

Question No : 138 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
200-125 dumps200-125 dumps Question No : 139 – (Topic 1)  A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
200-125 dumps 
Answer: D
Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface.
Question No : 140 – (Topic 1) Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

QUESTION NO: 141
You work as a Windows Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You are creating a Windows Forms application using .NET Framework 3.5. You need to develop a new control for the application. You must ensure that the control inherits the TreeView control by adding a custom node tag and a highlight color. What will you do?
A. Write a code segment in the DrawNode event handler to give the highlight color.
B. Override the OnPaint method.
C. Set the control’s DrawMode property to OwnerDrawText, and then implement a custom DrawNode event handler.
D. Set the control’s DrawMode property to OwnerDrawAll, and then implement a custom DrawNode event handler.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 142
You work as a Software Developer for HiTech Inc. You develop a Web application named MyWebApp. The application contains several Web pages that display a registration form for a user. You want to perform user input data validation at the server-side, so that you can disable the client-side data input validation. Which of the following actions will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Set the CausesValidation property of a server control to false.
B. Set the Enabled property of a validation control to true.
C. Set the Enabled property of a validation control to false.
D. Set the EnableClientScript property of a validation control to true.
E. Set the EnableClientScript property of a validation control to false.
200-125 pdf 
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 143
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You create a method to call a COM component using the .NET Framework. You want to use declarative security to request the runtime to run a complete stack walk. You need to ensure that all callers be obliged to level of trust for COM interop before the callers execute the method. Which of the following attributes will you place on the method to accomplish the task?
A. [SecurityPermissionSecurityAction.LinkDemand, Flags=SecurityPermissionFlag.UnmanagedCode)]
B. [SecurityPermission(SecurityAction.Deny, Flags = SecurityPermissionFlag.UnmanagedCode)]
C. [SecurityPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Flags=SecurityPermissionFlag.UnmanagedCode)]
D. [SecurityPermission(SecurityAction.Assert, Flags = SecurityPermissionFlag.UnmanagedCode)]
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
You work as a Software Developer for Webtech Inc. You plan to migrate the existing Active Server Pages (ASP) pages to ASP.NET Web pages in order to implement rich functionalities of a Web browser in your Web pages. Therefore, you want to add controls to Web pages of your existing application named WebApp1. Which of the following controls will be most suitable to implement?
A. HTML server controls
B. Web server controls
C. Validation controls
D. HTML controls
200-125 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application that will match the location in a given string. You need to ensure that the match must begin at either the first character of the given string or the last character of a line in the string. Which of the following characters will you use to accomplish the task?
A. \A
B. $
C. ^
D. \Z
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 146
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an application using .NET Framework 2.0. You are using regular expression in the application to validate email, phone number, etc. You are required to match any single character except “\n”. Which of the following wildcard characters will you use to accomplish the task?
A. x/y
B. +
C. ?
D. .
200-125 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 147
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework 3.5. The application is used to map HTTP requests to HTTP handlers based on a file  name extension. You need to ensure that each HTTP handler processes individual HTTP URLs or groups of URL extensions in the application. Which of the following built-in HTTP handlers will you use to accomplish this task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Generic Web handler (*.ashx)
B. Generic handler (*.ashx)
C. Web service handler (*.asmx)
D. ASP.NET page handler (*.aspx)
E. Trace handler (trace.axd)
Answer: A,C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 148
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its application development platform. You need to read the entire contents of a file named Msg.txt into a single string variable using .NET Framework. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. string NewResult = string.Empty;
StreamReader Strreader = new StreamReader(“Msg.txt”);
While (!Strreader.EndOfStream) {
NewResult += Strreader.ToString();
B. string NewResult = null;
StreamReader Strreader = new StreamReader(“Msg.txt”);
NewResult = Strreader.ReadLine();
C. string NewResult = null;
StreamReader Strreader = new StreamReader(“Msg.txt”);
NewResult = Strreader.ReadToEnd();
D. string NewResult = null;
StreamReader Strreader = new StreamReader(“Msg.txt”);
NewResult = Strreader.Read().ToString();
200-125 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 149
Jerry works as a Web Developer for Soft Solutions Inc. He creates an assembly named MyAssembly so that it can be shared among several existing client applications. He verifies that MyAssembly can be installed into the global assembly cache of the client computer. However, he does not want to use a Windows setup for installing the assembly. Which of the following actions should Jerry take to install the assembly into the global assembly cache? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Use the Global Assembly Cache (Gacutil.exe) tool.
B. Use Windows Explorer.
C. Use the .NET Framework Configuration tool.
D. Use Microsoft Windows Installer 2.0.
Answer: A,D

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Latest Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#
QUESTION 117
A technician is checking services in response to the recent failed delivery of all voicemails. Which service must be running for message delivery to function properly?
A. Connection DB Event Publisher
B. Connection Database Proxy
C. Connection Notifier
D. Connection Message Transfer Agent
210-060 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the
error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which two options are configured on the directory number configuration page within Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Administrator? (Choose two.)
A. partition
B. MAC address
C. auto answer
D. softkey template
E. common device configuration
F. max calls
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 120
Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU?
A. Staticandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;

B. Network ipandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;
C. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;
D. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server
addressandgt;
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen?
A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B. TEI_ASSIGNED
C. LINK_UP
D. CONTROLLER_UP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.)
A. partitions
B. classes of service
C. search spaces
D. user templates
E. schedules
210-060 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 124

Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection. Which feature can be disabled to prohibit
automatic volume adjustments to recordings?
A. AGC
B. Noise Reduction
C. Audio Normalization
D. VAD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit.

210-060 dumps

Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes?
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
An engineer is using Cisco Jabber. Instant messages are transported through which protocol?
A. SIP
B. XMPP
C. H.323
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 pdf  Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION NO: 130
You work as a Web Application Developer for SunInfo Inc. The company uses Visual Studio 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You want to ensure that when an unhandled exception occurs on the site, a custom error page errorpage.aspx is displayed. Also, you want to ensure that when the HTTP 500 error occurs, the servererror.aspx page is displayed. Which of the following settings will you add inside the system.web section of the Web.config file to accomplish the task?
A. <compilation debug=”true”></compilation>
B. <customErrors defaultRedirect=”errorpage.aspx” mode=”on”><error statusCode=”500″ redirect=”servererror.aspx”/>
C. <customErrors defaultRedirect=”servererror.aspx” mode=”on”><error statusCode=”500″ redirect=”errorpage.aspx”/>
D. <trace enabled=”true” localOnly=”false” />
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 131
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You use C# .NET to create an assembly named TestAssembly that will be used by other applications, including a standard COM client application. You must deploy the assembly on the COM application to a client computer. You must ensure that the COM applications can instantiate components within the assembly as COM components. Which of the following options will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Generate a registry file for the assembly by using the Assembly Registration Tool (Regasm.exe) and register the file on the client computer.
B. Deploy the assembly to the global assembly cache on the client computer. Add a reference to the assembly in the COM client application.
C. Create a strong name of the assembly by using the Strong Name tool(Sn.exe).
D. Generate a type library for the assembly by using the Type Library Importer (Tlbimp.exe) and register the file on the client computer.
210-060 vce  
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 132
You work as a .NET Trainer for ABC Inc. The Company uses .NET Framework as its application development platform. You are creating an application to demonstrate the use of datatypes. You create an unsigned Short datatype in the application. Which of the following values can be assigned to the unsigned Short datatype? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. 123
B. 65,535
C. 127,625
D. 32,636
E. -123
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 133
John works as a Software Developer for InfoTech Inc. He develops an application named SerializeObj. He creates a custom class and wants to serialize its object. He also wants the object to be stored into an XML file named File1.xml. He writes the following code: public class
Employees
{
public string EmpID;
public string EmpName;
public decimal Salary;
}
Which of the following code statements will John add in the application?
A. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Employees), ObjectTypes);
B. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Employees));
C. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(Employees);
D. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer();
210-060 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 134
Mark works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. He develops an application using Visual Studio .NET 2005. He writes the following code snippet in the application: public class MyClass
{
public static void Main(String[] args)

{
try
{
return;
}
finally
{
Console.WriteLine(“Finally”);
} } }
What will happen when Mark attempts to compile and execute the code snippet?
A. The code snippet will compile successfully and the output will be displayed as “Finally”.
B. The code snippet will compile successfully, but an exception message will be displayed at runtime.
C. A compile-time error will occur because the catch block is not defined.
D. The code snippet will compile successfully, but nothing will be displayed as output on execution.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
David works as a Software Developer for McRobert Inc. He develops a Web application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. App1 contains several Web forms that display information about an online shopping process. David wants to provide a Web-based shopping catalog to users. However, he wants to ensure that the information about the shopping catalog is secure and requires no server resources. What will David do to accomplish the task?
A. Use a query string as a user preference.
B. Use a session state variable as a user preference.
C. Use an application state variable as a user preference.
D. Use a session cookie as a user preference.
210-060 dumps
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. He creates an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. He wants to ensure that the application must manage state effectively. State is how data is moved and persisted throughout the layers of the application. There are number of factors to validate state management. Which of the following factors will he consider to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. State persistence
B. Saving state
C. Caching
D. Shared state
E. View state
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 137
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of an application using.NET Framework 2.0. The application has multiple threads that execute one after another. You want to modify the application and schedule the threads for execution based on their assigned priority. What will you do to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use the Highest priority.
B. Use the BelowNormal priority.
C. Use the Normal priority.
D. Use the Middle priority.
E. Use the Lowest priority.
210-060 pdf 
Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 138
Smith works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. He develops a Web application named WebApp by using Visual Studio .NET. He wants to deploy WebApp on a target computer. He wants to take precautionary measures in the application so that no issues may arise while deploying it. Which of the following measures will Smith take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organize data in the application configuration files.
B. Use a tracing feature to trace and gather information about each step in the program execution.
C. Use a technique to avoid errors and to store error-related information.
D. Use a debugger to step through the application code while it is running.
E. Respond to health monitoring events in order to log performance and error-related conditio ns.
Answer: B,C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 139
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You are not using an exception handling framework in the application. However, the application must automatically log all unhandled exceptions to an event log. You are required to configure the Web.config file accordingly. Which of the following configurations will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <healthMonitoring enabled=”true”/>
B. <customErrors mode=”On”/>
C. <trace enabled=”true”/>
D. <deployment retail=”true”/>
210-060 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 140
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You are creating an application using the .NET Framework. You write the following code snippet to call a method from the Win32 API by using PInvoke:  int rst = MessageBox(hWd, Mytext, Mycaption, Mytype);
You are required define a method prototype. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task?
A. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int MessageBoxA(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
B. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int Win32API_User32_MessageBox(Int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
C. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int MessageBox(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
D. [DllImport(“C:\\WINDOWS\\system32\\user32.dll”)] extern int MessageBox(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
Answer: C

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  • Design and implement indexes
  • Design new indexes based on provided tables, queries, or plans; distinguish between indexed columns and included columns; implement clustered index columns by using best practices; recommend new indexes based on query plans
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810-502 dumps

Latest Cisco 810-502 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)#
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following statements is true about the live migration feature of Xen?
A. It requires that the source and destination hosts have access, with same rights, to the device that exports the virtual machine file system.
B. It is used to migrate the file system of virtual machines between two hosts on the same network segment, ensuring data integrity during the migration process.
C. It is recommended that the virtual machines be restarted after migration to ensure that network settings will be updated.
D. It requires that the virtual machines are turned off to ensure that data stored in the RAM of the virtual machine will not be lost during the migration.
E. It is used to convert physical servers into virtual machines without having to stop the physical servers.
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Using Linux Virtual Server (LVS) provides which of the following features? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Balancing load across real servers
B. Taking over for fenced nodes
C. Stopping services on other nodes when one node has a stopped service
D. Checking and maintaining the integrity of services on real servers
E. Starting and stopping virtual machines as needed
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What actions are permitted by a hypervisor? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. A hypervisor may install a Guest OS.
B. A hypervisor may perform privileged tasks on behalf of the Guest OS.
C. A hypervisor may shape traffic on the bridged network devices for the Guest OS.
D. A hypervisor may directly manipulate memory.
E. A hypervisor may execute privileged CPU instructions.
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
DRBD is equivalent to a networked version of what RAID level?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are common uses of virtualization? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Operating System virtualization
B. User virtualization
C. Identification virtualization
D. Authentication virtualization
E. Storage virtualization

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements are true when comparing full virtualization and paravirtualization in Xen? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. Paravirtualization demands changes to operating systems designed to be installed directly on the hardware when using those operating systems as guests.
B. It is possible to use, without changes, operating systems designed to be installed directly on the hardware when using it as guest in full virtualization.
C. The number of virtual CPUs can be configured only in the full virtualization mode.
D. Paravirtualization depends on special CPU features like IntelVT or AMDV.
E. The virtual network resources are available for both types of virtualization.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 7
Why does this virtual machine NOT boot?
kvm drive file=sd
A. img,if=scsi m 128
B. KVM cannot be started on the command line.
C. The boot=on parameter is missing in the drive definition.
D. KVM does not use the drive option; it uses hda instead.
E. It is missing a cdrom
810-502 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
How many virtual CPUs can KVM support in SMP guests?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 2
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following is NOT a required component for running an OCFS2 file system resource in a Pacemaker environment?
A. A clone resource for the OCFS2 file system
B. quorum
C. dlm
D. clvm
E. o2cb
810-502 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following statements about STONITH is NOT true?
A. You can use hardware devices such as HP ILO or Dell DRAC management boards for STONITH.
B. Resources will migrate only after a STONITH operation has been issued successfully.

C. It is recommended to use STONITH to increase the integrity of the cluster.
D. Null STONITH is a good solution if you have guaranteed the integrity of the file systems used in your cluster in another way.
E. When setting up SSHSTONITH, you should use a dedicated communications link for the STONITH
traffic in the cluster.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are Pacemaker components? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. ccmd
B. crmd
C. heartbeat
D. pengine
E. keepalived
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the primary components to Conga? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. luci
B. ipvsadm
C. cman
D. fenced
E. ricci
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
In keepalived, what keyword starts the configuration section for one of the failover servers?
A. lvs_server
B. virtual_server
C. vrrp_instance
D. vrrp_sync_group
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the the following cluster infrastructure services are provided by heartbeat (versions 3 and post 2.1)? (Specify TWO correct answers)
A. membership
B. communication
C. advanced resource management
D. STONITH
E. service migration
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
A configuration file for a Xen virtual machine was created in the directory /etc/xen with filename slack.cfg. What is the command to start the virtual machine defined in this configuration file including displaying its console on screen?
A. xm start slack
B. xm create slack.cfg showconsole
C. xm create slack.cfg
D. xm start slack.cfg c
E. xm create slack.cfg c
810-502 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which configuration setting ultimately determines which server will be the MASTER with keep alived?
A. advert_int
B. state
C. type
D. priority
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which function is not supported in a GFS2 file system?
A. repair
B. grow
C. shrink
D. withdraw
810-502 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
When using the user mode network stack with qemu, TCP and UDP connections work fine but ping does not work. Why is this?
A. The Qemu user mode network stack does not implement ICMP.
B. The problem is caused by incorrect routing.
C. The Qemu user mode network stack blocks all ICMP traffic.
D. The Qemu user mode network stack requires explicit permission for ping to work.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When using Xen, each VM will have a configuration file matching the name of the VM. Where are these configuration files stored?
A. Each configuration file is stored with the VM disk files.
B. In the directory /etc/xen
C. On a LDAP, NIS or DHCP server
D. In the directory /var/lib/xen
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
With HAProxy, which one of the following ACLs can match requests made to the domain example.org?
A. acl acl_example hdr_sub(Host) example.org
B. acl acl_example url_domain example.org
C. acl acl_example hdr_sub(Domain) example.org
D. acl acl_example url_host example.org

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Why is quorum used in a Red Hat Cluster Suite installation?
A. To keep track of membership among nodes
B. To prevent splitbrain conditions
C. To establish communication protocols
D. To detect configuration conflicts
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which one of the following should NOT be used as a lowlevel device for DRBD?
A. A LVM logical volume
B. A physical hard disk
C. A EVMS volume
D. A loop device
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
In heartbeat (versions 3 and post 2.1), what should the crm directive be set to?
A. on
B. no
C. respawn
D. pacemaker
E. off
810-502 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What action does the virsh save command perform?
A. It stops a VM and saves the data from memory to a file.
B. It saves the a running domain configuration to file.
C. It saves a copy of a running VM.
D. It rescues a VM from being fenced.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
An administrator needs to shutdown a Xen virtual machine immediately, otherwise, the virtual machine risks corrupting the file system. Which of the following methods could be used for an immediate shutdown?
A. Use xm shutdown <vmname> force
B. Use xm destroy <vmname>
C. Use xm poweroff <vmname>
D. Shut down the xend process
E. Use xm stop <vmname>
810-502 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which memory management subsystem does KVM use?
A. QEMM
B. Xen’s memory management module
C. KVMMM
D. The default memory management of the Host OS kernel
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
A server with Xen installed has hardware and software requirements for full virtualization. What commands can tell you about the availability of full virtualization on the server? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. dmesg |grep i intel|grep i vt;dmesg |grep i amd|grep i v
B. egrep ‘(vmx|svm)’ /proc/cpuinfo
C. xm dmesg | grep i hvm
D. grep i “Full Virtualization” /proc/xen
E. grep i “Full Virtualization” /etc/xen/*
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 28
Which kernel boot option should be used to reserve 512 MB of system memory for the Xen hypervisor?
A. xen_mem=512M
B. memory=512M
C. dom0_mem=512M
D. mem=512M
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
With GFS, which of the following are valid arguments for the lockproto option when setting up DLM? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. lock_dlm
B. lock_gulm
C. lock_nolock
D. lock_exclusive
E. lock_softlock
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
What is the effect of running the virsh setvcpus CLUSNODE1 2 command?
A. It adds 2 virtual CPUs to the virtual machine CLUSNODE1.
B. It sets virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to have 2 virtual CPUs.
C. It sets all virtual CPUs of virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to physical processor 2.
D. It restricts the virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to using, at most, 2 physical processors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
In Red Hat Cluster Suite, which one of the following commands shows the right syntax for fencing the node on port 3 using the APC rack PDU device which can be found at IP address 192.168.1.145?
A. apc_stonith a 192.168.1.145 l apc n 3 v o shutdown r now
B. fence_apc a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o shutdown r now
C. fence_apc a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o reboot
D. apc_stonith a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o reboot
810-502 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A user tries to install a Windows virtual machine, but this doesn’t work. The same user has just successfully installed a Linuxbased virtual host. What is one possible reason why Windows cannot be installed?
A. Virtualization support is not available in the CPU.
B. The xend process is not loaded.
C. The Xen kernel is not loaded.
D. The NTFS file system is required in order to install Windows as a virtual machine.
E. The xendomain process is not loaded.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What is LinuxPMI?
A. A Linux process migration technology
B. A Linux parallel processing technology
C. A Linux processor management interface
D. A Linux process management interface
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
In virtualization, why is using a 64bit host operating system desirable compared to a 32bit host?
A. 64bit hosts provide more data throughput to guests than 32bit hosts.
B. Virtualization isn’t stable with 32bit based operating systems.
C. 64bit operating systems get faster access to hardware resources such as disk drives.
D. There is a larger memory address space which allows for potentially more and larger virtualized guests.
Correct Answer: D

 

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-180
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Q&As: 291

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300-108 dumps

Latest Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 29
At any given distance from an antenna, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between the gain of an omnidirectional antenna and coverage?
A. The highest gain antenna will always provide the strongest signal
B. Gain is inversely related to vertical coverage
C. Gain is directly related to both vertical and horizontal coverage
D. Gain of an omnidirectional antenna has no effect on coverage
300-180 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
For planning a mesh link, which information is NOT required to have available for using the Aruba Outdoor Planner?
A. For directional antennas, expected directions between mounting locations
B. Desired Throughput on the Mesh Backhaul
C. Client Device info (power and typical antenna gain if available)
D. Locations believed to need bridging/mesh links due to lack of available Ethernet or fiber
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of “Design Margin” in the outdoor planner?
A. Higher design margin will decrease the displayed distance for client coverage
B. Increasing design margin will increase the predicted signal levels at the AP and client
C. At any given distance increasing design margin is added safety margin (in dB) for predicted vs measured results
D. Different design margins may be appropriate for client coverage vs. mesh links
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which statement best describes the use of EIRP limits in the outdoor planner?
A. The outdoor planner will automatically reduce AP output power based on the antenna selected and cable losses to ensure the displayed results are not based on unapproved EIRP levels
B. When preparing an outdoor plan, the user must ensure that EIRP levels are not exceeded by the utility
C. Before beginning a plan, the user must enter the maximum EIRP allowed for their regulatory domain
D. EIRP is not used by the outdoor planner
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
For 802.11n planning, which statement most accurately describes the results produced by the outdoor planner (choose one):
A. Maximum results presented require ability of the environment (physical channel) to support 2 spatial streams
B. 5 GHz models will always show higher available throughput
C. The use of a “short guard interval” will improve security but may still leave some gaps in protection
D. The results presented account for losses due to trees and buildings shown in Google Earth
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the best use of the imagery in Google Earth vs. a Facility Plan or CAD drawing for outdoor planning?
A. Google Earth imagery is useful for finding mounting locations
B. When possible, it is recommended to reference all locations to a scaled Facility Plan or CAD drawing and use the Google Earth aerial imagery for background information only
C. Google Earth imagery is usually more current than customer provided drawings and should be used as the primary reference
D. Google Earth aerial photos are easier to use for picking mounting locations
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Before uploading a kmz file to the Aruba Outdoor planner, what is the only folder that is REQUIRED to be present?
A. “Locations” folder containing placemarks
B. “Map” folder containing Google Maps
C. “CAD Overlay” containing the customer CAD file overlay
D. “Favorites” containing all of the above
300-180 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the different operation modes of the radio interface of the Aruba mesh router?
A. access, backhaul, and client
B. a, b, and g
C. access, gateway, and none
D. 2.4 G, 4.9 G, and 5.8 G
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the maximum number of SSIDs per radio that an Aruba mesh router supports when it operates in access mode?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
300-180 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of WDS links per radio that the Aruba mesh router supports?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which routing protocol is used for internal routing by Aruba mesh router?
A. Static
B. AWR
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
In the output of the “show ip route” command on the Aruba mesh router, O means OSPF, and A means AWR. Which route is used as the destination of 10.10.0.2 mesh node?
A. O 10.0.0.0/8
B. A 10.0.0.0/8
C. O 10.10.0.0/24
D. A 10.10.0.0/24
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
How many gateways can the AWR protocol support?
A. only one gateway
B. only two gateways
C. only three gateways
D. multi-gateways
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? (Choose three)
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
E. Logging level debugging security process vpn
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 43
The screen captures below show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
300-180 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. Employee
B. Guest
C. Captive Portal
D. Logon
E. No role will be assigned
Correct Answer: E

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CCNA Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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200-155 Dumps

Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 42
Which is not part of Project Plan?
A. Project Scope Management Plan
B. Schedule Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Project Charter
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All are part of Project Plan except project charter.
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase?
A. Information management
B. Maintain scope statement
C. Maintain Charter
D. Maintain Closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases of the project is the management of information.
QUESTION 44
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Reserves analysis
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate.
QUESTION 45
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION 46
Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?
A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals
B. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals
C. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
D. Al1 of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded.
QUESTION 47
The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of ________.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality rules
D. CMM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of basic tools of quality control.
QUESTION 48
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A. Acceptance
B. shaie
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set aside to offset the impact of the risk.
QUESTION 49
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project product
C. Project manager authority
D. Project objective
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project charter provides the project manager with authority.
QUESTION 50
What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5  to 10?
A. 35
B. 5
C. 15
D. 75
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Delta = n*(n-1)/2 – n1*(n1-1)/2 where n = individuals and n1 = new individuals 10-45 = 35 No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual
QUESTION 51
Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.
A. Initiation Process
B. Project closer Process
C. Estimation Process
D. Closing process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Collect Requirements process starts in “Project Planning Phase” and uses the outputs of the Initiation Process.
QUESTION 52
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.
A. Has ended before its stated objective
B. ‘s st'” cunning but missing resources
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives.
QUESTION 53
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Top-down estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter).
QUESTION 54
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan.
QUESTION 55
Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?
A. Project manager
B. QA manager
C. Project planner
D. Team ‘ead
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality.
QUESTION 56
Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.
A. Written down
B. Understandable
C. Not understandable
D. No need to write
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous.

QUESTION 57
Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Senior Management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project.

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CCIE Service Provider, Cisco

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1
Q&As: 618

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Latest Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 77
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
400-201 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
When accessing Management Console from the Web, the built in admin account uses the regular
password of CLI access (NOT the enable password of admin account)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which console services are NOT available on the ProxySG?
A. SSH
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. Serial
E. All the above are available
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
The ProxySG operating system is based on________.
A. a customized, object oriented version of FreeBSD
B. a custom built operating system with integrated caching and compression
C. a Linux Kernel 2.6.x with byte caching and compression
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which appliance does not need any licensing and is fully operable after deployment?
A. ProxyAV
B. ProxySG
C. ProxyRA
D. Blue Coat Director
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
ProxySG can provide all these services to IM clients — client authentication at a proxy, message reflection,
policy enforcement and logging.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Can server initiate an HTTP transaction?
A. It cannot
B. It can for e.g. Web-based instant messaging, AJAX and similar server-push applications
C. It can only for some HTTP request methods
400-201 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
The ProxySG can create configurable access logs for FTP, HTTP, and Telnet but not for Peer-to-Peer or
Real Media
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which of the following policies CANNOT be implemented on the ProxyAV? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Blocking viruses, worms, spyware and trojans
(b) Blocking file types using apparent data type (file signature) (c) Blocking files that exceed a size limit set
by the administrator (d) Blocking password protected archive files
A. a only
B. b only
C. c only
D. d only
E. All of the above can be implemented with the Proxy AV
400-201 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
The SSL certificate returned by the Management Console upon HTTPS access____.
A. is birth certificate, which depends on the device serial number only; it can be cached for the whole
lifetime of the ProxySG
B. is generated anew automatically every time ProxySG performs initial setup
C. has to be generated explicitly from the CLI
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
ProxySG has to be deployed inline (in bridging mode) or virtually inline (using WCCP or an L4 switch) in
order to block IM traffic.
A. True
B. False

400-201 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier policy_denied?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Which of the following are true about the rules processing in the VPM? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Rules are processed in a top down sequence.
(b) Layers are processed from left to right regardless of type.
(c) Layers are processed according to layer type.
(d) Layers of the same type are processed from left to right.
A. None of the above
B. b. c & d only
C. a, b & c only
D. a, c & d only
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Which capabilities are limited in Blue coat Reporter standard edition compared to Enterprise edition?
(Choose all that apply)
(a)Data profile number is limited to five
(b)Reports can be displayed, but cannot be saved as PDF or CSV (c)Only single processor is supported
(d)Report customization is limited
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
Find the configuration or management activity that is NOT among the functions of the Blue Coat Director
CANNOT be used?
A. Configuration of a large number of ProxySG appliances
B. Policy updates on ProxySG appliances
C. Virus definition updates for AV scanning
D. Setup and licensing
E. All the above actions can be done by a Director
400-201 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
In the VPM, source triggers can be used in conjunction with the ICAP RESPMOD action.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV is accessed in ICAP REQMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOD mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
D. Proxy SG with ProxyAV is deployed as a reverse proxy
400-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
What are the best practices using anti-virus software on aWindows machine running Blue Coat Reporter?
A. Do not use anti-virus software as the log files cannot contain viruses
B. Perform scans as you would for any Windows server
C. Perform scans only during low activity of ProxySG
D. Perform scans, but bypass certain directories containing frequently changing files
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Coaching or splash pages have to be configured through CPL rather than VPM.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier authentication_failed?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
How many different anti-virus scanning engines can you run simultaneously on a ProxyAV?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Which WAN Optimization feature can accelerate the transfer of several similar, uncompressed files
between two locations? (Two files are called similar, if their editing distance is small, compared to the size
of the files. For example, if one file can be obtained from another one by inserting or deleting a small
fragment.)

A. Protocol Optimization
B. Object Caching
C. Byte Caching
D. Bandwidth Management
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: C

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