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Latest Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#
QUESTION 117
A technician is checking services in response to the recent failed delivery of all voicemails. Which service must be running for message delivery to function properly?
A. Connection DB Event Publisher
B. Connection Database Proxy
C. Connection Notifier
D. Connection Message Transfer Agent
210-060 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the
error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which two options are configured on the directory number configuration page within Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Administrator? (Choose two.)
A. partition
B. MAC address
C. auto answer
D. softkey template
E. common device configuration
F. max calls
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 120
Which CLI command must be used to configure the network settings on a Cisco TelePresence 4500 MCU?
A. Staticandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;

B. Network ipandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server addressandgt;
C. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;
D. Xconfig network addressandlt;ip addressandgt;andlt;netmaskandgt;andlt;default gatewayandgt;andlt;DNS server
addressandgt;
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 121
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 122
An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen?
A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B. TEI_ASSIGNED
C. LINK_UP
D. CONTROLLER_UP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.)
A. partitions
B. classes of service
C. search spaces
D. user templates
E. schedules
210-060 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 124

Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection. Which feature can be disabled to prohibit
automatic volume adjustments to recordings?
A. AGC
B. Noise Reduction
C. Audio Normalization
D. VAD
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 125
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 126
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit.

210-060 dumps

Which method is using the users to access their mailboxes?
A. web access
B. phone access
C. GUI access
D. VUI access
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
An engineer is using Cisco Jabber. Instant messages are transported through which protocol?
A. SIP
B. XMPP
C. H.323
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 pdf  Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION NO: 130
You work as a Web Application Developer for SunInfo Inc. The company uses Visual Studio 2008 as its application development platform. You create a Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You want to ensure that when an unhandled exception occurs on the site, a custom error page errorpage.aspx is displayed. Also, you want to ensure that when the HTTP 500 error occurs, the servererror.aspx page is displayed. Which of the following settings will you add inside the system.web section of the Web.config file to accomplish the task?
A. <compilation debug=”true”></compilation>
B. <customErrors defaultRedirect=”errorpage.aspx” mode=”on”><error statusCode=”500″ redirect=”servererror.aspx”/>
C. <customErrors defaultRedirect=”servererror.aspx” mode=”on”><error statusCode=”500″ redirect=”errorpage.aspx”/>
D. <trace enabled=”true” localOnly=”false” />
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 131
You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. You use C# .NET to create an assembly named TestAssembly that will be used by other applications, including a standard COM client application. You must deploy the assembly on the COM application to a client computer. You must ensure that the COM applications can instantiate components within the assembly as COM components. Which of the following options will you use to accomplish this task?
A. Generate a registry file for the assembly by using the Assembly Registration Tool (Regasm.exe) and register the file on the client computer.
B. Deploy the assembly to the global assembly cache on the client computer. Add a reference to the assembly in the COM client application.
C. Create a strong name of the assembly by using the Strong Name tool(Sn.exe).
D. Generate a type library for the assembly by using the Type Library Importer (Tlbimp.exe) and register the file on the client computer.
210-060 vce  
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 132
You work as a .NET Trainer for ABC Inc. The Company uses .NET Framework as its application development platform. You are creating an application to demonstrate the use of datatypes. You create an unsigned Short datatype in the application. Which of the following values can be assigned to the unsigned Short datatype? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. 123
B. 65,535
C. 127,625
D. 32,636
E. -123
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 133
John works as a Software Developer for InfoTech Inc. He develops an application named SerializeObj. He creates a custom class and wants to serialize its object. He also wants the object to be stored into an XML file named File1.xml. He writes the following code: public class
Employees
{
public string EmpID;
public string EmpName;
public decimal Salary;
}
Which of the following code statements will John add in the application?
A. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Employees), ObjectTypes);
B. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Employees));
C. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer(Employees);
D. XmlSerializer ObjectSerializer = new XmlSerializer();
210-060 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 134
Mark works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. He develops an application using Visual Studio .NET 2005. He writes the following code snippet in the application: public class MyClass
{
public static void Main(String[] args)

{
try
{
return;
}
finally
{
Console.WriteLine(“Finally”);
} } }
What will happen when Mark attempts to compile and execute the code snippet?
A. The code snippet will compile successfully and the output will be displayed as “Finally”.
B. The code snippet will compile successfully, but an exception message will be displayed at runtime.
C. A compile-time error will occur because the catch block is not defined.
D. The code snippet will compile successfully, but nothing will be displayed as output on execution.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
David works as a Software Developer for McRobert Inc. He develops a Web application named App1 using Visual Studio .NET. App1 contains several Web forms that display information about an online shopping process. David wants to provide a Web-based shopping catalog to users. However, he wants to ensure that the information about the shopping catalog is secure and requires no server resources. What will David do to accomplish the task?
A. Use a query string as a user preference.
B. Use a session state variable as a user preference.
C. Use an application state variable as a user preference.
D. Use a session cookie as a user preference.
210-060 dumps
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. He creates an application using Visual Studio.NET 2005. He wants to ensure that the application must manage state effectively. State is how data is moved and persisted throughout the layers of the application. There are number of factors to validate state management. Which of the following factors will he consider to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. State persistence
B. Saving state
C. Caching
D. Shared state
E. View state
Answer: A,B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 137
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently finished development of an application using.NET Framework 2.0. The application has multiple threads that execute one after another. You want to modify the application and schedule the threads for execution based on their assigned priority. What will you do to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use the Highest priority.
B. Use the BelowNormal priority.
C. Use the Normal priority.
D. Use the Middle priority.
E. Use the Lowest priority.
210-060 pdf 
Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 138
Smith works as a Software Developer for BlueWell Inc. He develops a Web application named WebApp by using Visual Studio .NET. He wants to deploy WebApp on a target computer. He wants to take precautionary measures in the application so that no issues may arise while deploying it. Which of the following measures will Smith take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organize data in the application configuration files.
B. Use a tracing feature to trace and gather information about each step in the program execution.
C. Use a technique to avoid errors and to store error-related information.
D. Use a debugger to step through the application code while it is running.
E. Respond to health monitoring events in order to log performance and error-related conditio ns.
Answer: B,C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 139
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5. You are not using an exception handling framework in the application. However, the application must automatically log all unhandled exceptions to an event log. You are required to configure the Web.config file accordingly. Which of the following configurations will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <healthMonitoring enabled=”true”/>
B. <customErrors mode=”On”/>
C. <trace enabled=”true”/>
D. <deployment retail=”true”/>
210-060 vce 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 140
You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application development platform. You are creating an application using the .NET Framework. You write the following code snippet to call a method from the Win32 API by using PInvoke:  int rst = MessageBox(hWd, Mytext, Mycaption, Mytype);
You are required define a method prototype. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish this task?
A. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int MessageBoxA(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
B. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int Win32API_User32_MessageBox(Int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
C. [DllImport(“user32”)] extern int MessageBox(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
D. [DllImport(“C:\\WINDOWS\\system32\\user32.dll”)] extern int MessageBox(int hWd, String Mytext, String Mycaption, uint Mytype);
Answer: C

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  • Design and implement indexes
  • Design new indexes based on provided tables, queries, or plans; distinguish between indexed columns and included columns; implement clustered index columns by using best practices; recommend new indexes based on query plans
  • Design and implement views
  • Design a view structure to select data based on user or business requirements, identify the steps necessary to design an updateable view, implement partitioned views, implement indexed views Implement columnstore indexes
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Latest Cisco 810-502 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)#
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following statements is true about the live migration feature of Xen?
A. It requires that the source and destination hosts have access, with same rights, to the device that exports the virtual machine file system.
B. It is used to migrate the file system of virtual machines between two hosts on the same network segment, ensuring data integrity during the migration process.
C. It is recommended that the virtual machines be restarted after migration to ensure that network settings will be updated.
D. It requires that the virtual machines are turned off to ensure that data stored in the RAM of the virtual machine will not be lost during the migration.
E. It is used to convert physical servers into virtual machines without having to stop the physical servers.
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Using Linux Virtual Server (LVS) provides which of the following features? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Balancing load across real servers
B. Taking over for fenced nodes
C. Stopping services on other nodes when one node has a stopped service
D. Checking and maintaining the integrity of services on real servers
E. Starting and stopping virtual machines as needed
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
What actions are permitted by a hypervisor? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. A hypervisor may install a Guest OS.
B. A hypervisor may perform privileged tasks on behalf of the Guest OS.
C. A hypervisor may shape traffic on the bridged network devices for the Guest OS.
D. A hypervisor may directly manipulate memory.
E. A hypervisor may execute privileged CPU instructions.
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4
DRBD is equivalent to a networked version of what RAID level?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following are common uses of virtualization? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. Operating System virtualization
B. User virtualization
C. Identification virtualization
D. Authentication virtualization
E. Storage virtualization

810-502 pdf Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements are true when comparing full virtualization and paravirtualization in Xen? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. Paravirtualization demands changes to operating systems designed to be installed directly on the hardware when using those operating systems as guests.
B. It is possible to use, without changes, operating systems designed to be installed directly on the hardware when using it as guest in full virtualization.
C. The number of virtual CPUs can be configured only in the full virtualization mode.
D. Paravirtualization depends on special CPU features like IntelVT or AMDV.
E. The virtual network resources are available for both types of virtualization.
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 7
Why does this virtual machine NOT boot?
kvm drive file=sd
A. img,if=scsi m 128
B. KVM cannot be started on the command line.
C. The boot=on parameter is missing in the drive definition.
D. KVM does not use the drive option; it uses hda instead.
E. It is missing a cdrom
810-502 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
How many virtual CPUs can KVM support in SMP guests?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 2
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which one of the following is NOT a required component for running an OCFS2 file system resource in a Pacemaker environment?
A. A clone resource for the OCFS2 file system
B. quorum
C. dlm
D. clvm
E. o2cb
810-502 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following statements about STONITH is NOT true?
A. You can use hardware devices such as HP ILO or Dell DRAC management boards for STONITH.
B. Resources will migrate only after a STONITH operation has been issued successfully.

C. It is recommended to use STONITH to increase the integrity of the cluster.
D. Null STONITH is a good solution if you have guaranteed the integrity of the file systems used in your cluster in another way.
E. When setting up SSHSTONITH, you should use a dedicated communications link for the STONITH
traffic in the cluster.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are Pacemaker components? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. ccmd
B. crmd
C. heartbeat
D. pengine
E. keepalived
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the primary components to Conga? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. luci
B. ipvsadm
C. cman
D. fenced
E. ricci
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
In keepalived, what keyword starts the configuration section for one of the failover servers?
A. lvs_server
B. virtual_server
C. vrrp_instance
D. vrrp_sync_group
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the the following cluster infrastructure services are provided by heartbeat (versions 3 and post 2.1)? (Specify TWO correct answers)
A. membership
B. communication
C. advanced resource management
D. STONITH
E. service migration
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
A configuration file for a Xen virtual machine was created in the directory /etc/xen with filename slack.cfg. What is the command to start the virtual machine defined in this configuration file including displaying its console on screen?
A. xm start slack
B. xm create slack.cfg showconsole
C. xm create slack.cfg
D. xm start slack.cfg c
E. xm create slack.cfg c
810-502 vce Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which configuration setting ultimately determines which server will be the MASTER with keep alived?
A. advert_int
B. state
C. type
D. priority
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which function is not supported in a GFS2 file system?
A. repair
B. grow
C. shrink
D. withdraw
810-502 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
When using the user mode network stack with qemu, TCP and UDP connections work fine but ping does not work. Why is this?
A. The Qemu user mode network stack does not implement ICMP.
B. The problem is caused by incorrect routing.
C. The Qemu user mode network stack blocks all ICMP traffic.
D. The Qemu user mode network stack requires explicit permission for ping to work.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When using Xen, each VM will have a configuration file matching the name of the VM. Where are these configuration files stored?
A. Each configuration file is stored with the VM disk files.
B. In the directory /etc/xen
C. On a LDAP, NIS or DHCP server
D. In the directory /var/lib/xen
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
With HAProxy, which one of the following ACLs can match requests made to the domain example.org?
A. acl acl_example hdr_sub(Host) example.org
B. acl acl_example url_domain example.org
C. acl acl_example hdr_sub(Domain) example.org
D. acl acl_example url_host example.org

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Why is quorum used in a Red Hat Cluster Suite installation?
A. To keep track of membership among nodes
B. To prevent splitbrain conditions
C. To establish communication protocols
D. To detect configuration conflicts
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which one of the following should NOT be used as a lowlevel device for DRBD?
A. A LVM logical volume
B. A physical hard disk
C. A EVMS volume
D. A loop device
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
In heartbeat (versions 3 and post 2.1), what should the crm directive be set to?
A. on
B. no
C. respawn
D. pacemaker
E. off
810-502 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
What action does the virsh save command perform?
A. It stops a VM and saves the data from memory to a file.
B. It saves the a running domain configuration to file.
C. It saves a copy of a running VM.
D. It rescues a VM from being fenced.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
An administrator needs to shutdown a Xen virtual machine immediately, otherwise, the virtual machine risks corrupting the file system. Which of the following methods could be used for an immediate shutdown?
A. Use xm shutdown <vmname> force
B. Use xm destroy <vmname>
C. Use xm poweroff <vmname>
D. Shut down the xend process
E. Use xm stop <vmname>
810-502 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which memory management subsystem does KVM use?
A. QEMM
B. Xen’s memory management module
C. KVMMM
D. The default memory management of the Host OS kernel
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
A server with Xen installed has hardware and software requirements for full virtualization. What commands can tell you about the availability of full virtualization on the server? (Select TWO correct answers)
A. dmesg |grep i intel|grep i vt;dmesg |grep i amd|grep i v
B. egrep ‘(vmx|svm)’ /proc/cpuinfo
C. xm dmesg | grep i hvm
D. grep i “Full Virtualization” /proc/xen
E. grep i “Full Virtualization” /etc/xen/*
810-502 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 28
Which kernel boot option should be used to reserve 512 MB of system memory for the Xen hypervisor?
A. xen_mem=512M
B. memory=512M
C. dom0_mem=512M
D. mem=512M
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
With GFS, which of the following are valid arguments for the lockproto option when setting up DLM? (Select THREE correct answers)
A. lock_dlm
B. lock_gulm
C. lock_nolock
D. lock_exclusive
E. lock_softlock
810-502 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
What is the effect of running the virsh setvcpus CLUSNODE1 2 command?
A. It adds 2 virtual CPUs to the virtual machine CLUSNODE1.
B. It sets virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to have 2 virtual CPUs.
C. It sets all virtual CPUs of virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to physical processor 2.
D. It restricts the virtual machine CLUSNODE1 to using, at most, 2 physical processors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
In Red Hat Cluster Suite, which one of the following commands shows the right syntax for fencing the node on port 3 using the APC rack PDU device which can be found at IP address 192.168.1.145?
A. apc_stonith a 192.168.1.145 l apc n 3 v o shutdown r now
B. fence_apc a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o shutdown r now
C. fence_apc a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o reboot
D. apc_stonith a 192.168.1.145 l apc p apc n 3 v o reboot
810-502 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
A user tries to install a Windows virtual machine, but this doesn’t work. The same user has just successfully installed a Linuxbased virtual host. What is one possible reason why Windows cannot be installed?
A. Virtualization support is not available in the CPU.
B. The xend process is not loaded.
C. The Xen kernel is not loaded.
D. The NTFS file system is required in order to install Windows as a virtual machine.
E. The xendomain process is not loaded.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
What is LinuxPMI?
A. A Linux process migration technology
B. A Linux parallel processing technology
C. A Linux processor management interface
D. A Linux process management interface
810-502 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
In virtualization, why is using a 64bit host operating system desirable compared to a 32bit host?
A. 64bit hosts provide more data throughput to guests than 32bit hosts.
B. Virtualization isn’t stable with 32bit based operating systems.
C. 64bit operating systems get faster access to hardware resources such as disk drives.
D. There is a larger memory address space which allows for potentially more and larger virtualized guests.
Correct Answer: D

 

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Latest CompTIA LX0-103 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)#

QUESTION 1
In a nested directory structure, which find command line option would be used to restrict the command to searching
down a particular number of subdirectories?
A. -dirmax
B. -maxdepth
C. -maxlevels
D. -n
E. -s
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following sequences in the vi editor saves the opened document and exits the editor? (Choose TWO
correct answers.)
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings

B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5
Which of the following commands can be used to search for the executable file foo when it has been placed in a
directory not included in $PATH?
A. apropos
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following are valid stream redirection operators within Bash? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. andlt;
B. andlt;andlt;andlt;
C. andgt;
D. andgt;andgt;andgt;
E. %andgt;
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands displays the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf
D. tar cf archive.tgz
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following signals is sent to a process when the key combination CTRL+C is pressed on the keyboard?
A. SIGTERM
B. SIGINT
C. SIGSTOP
D. SIGKILL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the directories are man pages found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /var/man
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
When using rpm –verify to check files created during the installation of RPM packages, which of the following
information is taken into consideration? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Timestamps
B. MD5 checksums
C. Inodes
D. File sizes

E. GnuPG signatures
LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands can be used to create a USB storage media from a disk image?
A. gdisk
B. dd
C. cc
D. fdisk
E. mount
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which of the following commands can be used to download the RPM package kernel without installing it?
A. yum download –no-install kernel
B. yumdownloader kernel
C. rpm –download –package kernel
D. rpmdownload kernel
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is correct when talking about mount points?
A. Every existing directory can be used as a mount point.
B. Only empty directories can be used as a mount point.

C. Directories need to have the SetUID flag set to be used as a mount point.
D. Files within a directory are deleted when the directory is used as a mount point.
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Instead of supplying an explicit device in /etc/fstab for mounting, what other options may be used to identify the intended
partition? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. FIND
B. ID
C. LABEL
D. NAME
E. UUID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists all currently installed packages when using RPM package management?
A. yum –query –all
B. yum –list –installed
C. rpm –query –all
D. rpm –list installed
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Regarding the command:
nice -5 /usr/bin/prog
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of -5.
B. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of 5.
C. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of -5.
D. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of 5.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands can be used to determine how long the system has been running? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. uptime
B. up
C. top
D. uname -u
E. time up
LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
After running the command umount /mnt, the following error message is displayed:
umount: /mnt: device is busy.
What is a common reason for this message?
A. The kernel has not finished flushing disk writes to the mounted device.
B. A user has a file open in the /mnt directory.
C. Another file system still contains a symlink to a file inside /mnt.
D. The files in /mnt have been scanned and added to the locate database.
E. The kernel thinks that a process is about to open a file in /mnt for reading.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which file should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What command will generate a list of user names from /etc/passwd along with their login shell?
A. column -s : 1,7 /etc/passwd

B. chop -c 1,7 /etc/passwd
C. colrm 1,7 /etc/passwd
D. cut -d: -f1,7 /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft, Microsoft Windows Store apps

Are you worrying about how to pass Microsoft 070-483 dumps test? The Programming in C# (070-483 Visual Studio) exam is a 90-minute 60 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSA certification.”Programming in C#” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 070-483 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 070-483 exam. There is no reason to waste your time on a test. Latest Microsoft 070-483 dumps certification Microsoft Windows Store apps exam questions Youtube study. If you feel it is difficult to prepare for Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/070-483.html dumps and need spend a lot of time on it, you had better use Pass4itsure test dumps which will help you save lots of time.

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Latest Microsoft 070-483 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (December 2017)#

QUESTION 10
You are developing an application. The application converts a Location object to a string by using a method named WriteObject. The WriteObject() method accepts two parameters, a Location object and an XmlObjectSerializer object.
The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

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You need to serialize the Location object as a JSON object.Which code segment should you insert at line 20?
A. New DataContractSerializer(typeof(Location))
B. New XmlSerializer(typeof(Location))
C. New NetDataContractSenalizer()
D. New DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(Location))
070-483 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The DataContractJsonSerializer class serializes objects to the JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and deserializes JSON data to objects. Use the DataContractJsonSerializer class to serialize instances of a type into a JSON document and to deserialize a JSON document into an instance of a type.
QUESTION 11
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData. You need to ensure that the GetData() from the Person class.Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Internal
B. Protected
C. Private
D. Protected internal
E. Public
070-483 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Protected – The type or member can be accessed only by code in the same class or structure, or in a class that is derived from that class. The
protected keyword is a member access modifier. A protected member is accessible within its class and by derived class instances.
QUESTION 12
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483 dumps

The DoWork() method must not throw any exceptions when converting the obj object to the IDataContainer interface or when accessing the Data property. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer)obj;
B. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As – The as operator is like a cast operation. However, if the conversion isn’t possible, as returns null instead of raising an exception.
QUESTION 13
You are creating an application that manages information about zoo animals. The application includes a class named Animal and a method named Save.The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Animal class that uses a constructor that accepts no parameters. You need to implement the Save() method.
Which code segment should you use?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-483 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you define a generic class, you can apply restrictions to the kinds of types that client code can use for type arguments when it instantiates your class. If client code tries to instantiate your class by using a type that is not allowed by a constraint, the result is a compile-time error. These restrictions are called constraints. Constraints are specified by using the where contextual keyword.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP
You are developing a class named ExtensionMethods. You need to ensure that the ExtensionMethods class implements the IsEmail() method on string objects. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-483 dumps

Correct Answer:
070-483 dumps

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You are developing an application. The application includes classes named Employee and Person and an interface named IPerson. The Employee class must meet the following requirements:
It must either inherit from the Person class or implement the IPerson interface.
It must be inheritable by other classes in the application. You need to ensure that the Employee class meets the requirements. Which two code segments can you use to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-483 vce Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Sealed – When applied to a class, the sealed modifier prevents other classes from inheriting from it.
QUESTION 16
You are developing an application that will convert data into multiple output formats. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-483 dumps

You are developing a code segment that will produce tab-delimited output. All output routines implement the following interface:
070-483 dumps

You need to minimize the completion time of the GetOutput() method.
Which code segment should you insert at line 06?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A String object concatenation operation always creates a new object from the existing string and the new data.
A StringBuilder object maintains a buffer to accommodate the concatenation of new data. New data is appended to the buffer if room is available; otherwise, a new, larger buffer is allocated, data from the original buffer is copied to the new buffer, and the new data is then appended to the new buffer. The performance of a concatenation operation for a String or StringBuilder object depends on the frequency of memory allocations. A String concatenation operation always allocates memory, whereas a StringBuilder concatenation operation allocates memory only if the StringBuilder object buffer is too small to accommodate the new data. Use the String class if you are concatenating a fixed number of String objects. In that case, the compiler may even combine individual concatenation operations into a single operation. Use a StringBuilder object if you are concatenating an arbitrary number of strings; for example, if you’re using a loop to concatenate a random number of strings of user input.
QUESTION 17
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes an object that performs a long running process. You need to ensure that the garbage collector does not release the object’s resources until the process completes.Which garbage collector method should you use?
A. ReRegisterForFinalize()
B. SuppressFinalize()
C. Collect()
D. WaitForFullGCApproach()
070-483 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Microsoft, Microsoft News

Microsoft announced a new podcast that dedicated to the latest developments in the fields of artificial intelligence and quantum computing.  Microsoft Research currently has more than 1000 computer scientists, physicists, engineers and mathematicians working around the world, including Turing Award winners and MacArthur Fellows. So it is conceivable that this program has a lot of points, and worth digging.

Microsoft

Gretchen Huizinga hosts the podcast of Microsoft Research and he is also a doctoral student, and digital media and technology is one of his subjects. He thought the program made us closer to the forefront of technology research and the scientists behind it. The first episode focuses on the research methods and work content of Dr. Jaime Teevan (working at Microsoft Research and the University of Washington), introducing his interesting working methods and his views, of course some of which are double-sided.We should specifically analyze the specific problem.

And this week, with Dr. Eric Horvitz, to know the subject of artificial intelligence. Eric Horvitz, who worked with Microsoft Research for 25 years, has a persistent attitude towards his work, a clear goal, and a thorough understanding of their roles and principles in every detail.

Microsoft

Last year, Microsoft launched several new podcasts that led the public to learn about different areas of technology and activities. Windows Insider Podcast can view the company’s preview program, and users can find the latest information at the first time. And this program will give us a more comprehensive understanding of the coming technology and its impact on the future world.

Microsoft news releases new episodes each Monday. Users can click on the program via RSS, email or links on itunes and Android devices

Microsoft

At the same time, Microsoft has been testing its Office applications on Chromebook for the past year, but is largely limited to Google’s newest Pixelbook device. Now that the test is over, many Chromebook can now reliably see office apps in the Google Play store. These applications are an Android version of Office, including the same functionality you can find on an Android tablet that runs office.

Devices like Asus’s Chromebook Flip (10.1-inch display) will be free to access office on the Chrome OS, but larger devices will need to subscribe. Chromebook has become increasingly popular. Google’s devices helped the PC market to grow for the first time in five years earlier this year, surpassing its Mac for the first time in the US last year. Microsoft is trying to deal with Chromebook with its own Windows OS and cheap laptops for schools.

Microsoft

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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Latest Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 30
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Web server named www.contoso.com. The Web server is available on the Internet. You implement DirectAccess by using the default configuration. You need to ensure that users never attempt to connect to www.contoso.com by using DirectAccess. The solution must not prevent the users from using DirectAccess to access other resources in contoso.com. Which settings should you configure in a Group Policy object (GPO)?
A. DirectAccess Client Experience Settings
B. Name Resolution Policy
C. DNS Client
D. Network Connections
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For DirectAccess, the NRPT must be configured with the namespaces of your intranet with a leading dot (for example, .internal.contoso.com or .corp.contoso.com). For a DirectAccess client, any name request that matches one of these namespaces will be sent to the specified intranet Domain Name System (DNS) servers. Include all intranet DNS namespaces that you want DirectAccess client computers to access. There are no command line methods for configuring NRPT rules. You must use Group Policy settings. To configure the NRPT through Group Policy, use the Group Policy add-in at Computer Configuration \Policies\Windows Settings\Name Resolution Policy in the Group Policy object for DirectAccess clients. You can create a new NRPT rule and edit or delete existing rules. For more information, see Configure the NRPT with Group Policy.
QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts 10 virtual machines. A virtual machine named VM1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and hosts a processor-intensive application named App1.  Users report that App1 responds more slowly than expected. You need to monitor the processor usage on VM1 to identify whether changes must be made to the hardware settings of VM1. Which performance object should you monitor on Server1?
A. Hyper-V Hypervisor Logical Processor
B. Hyper-V Hypervisor Root Virtual Processor
C. Processor
D. Hyper-V Hypervisor Virtual Processor
E. Process
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A. Traditionally, processor performance can be measured using the “\Processor(*)\% Processor Time” performance monitor counter. This is not an accurate counter for evaluating processor utilization of a guest operating system though because Hyper-V

B. Shows the percentage of time used by the virtual processor in guest code. This is used to determine the processor utilization of the virtualization stack on the host server.
C. Identifies how much of the physical processor is being used to run the virtual machines. This counter does not identify the individual virtual machines or the amount consumed by each virtual machine.
D. This counter is a natural choice that will give use the amount of time that this particular process spends using the processor resource.
E. Identifies how much of the virtual processor is being consumed by a virtual machine.
QUESTION 32
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. On Server1, you create a Data Collector Set (DCS) named Data1. You need to export Data1 to Server2. What should you do first?
A. Right-click Data1 and click Save template…
B. Right-click Data1 and click Export list…
C. Right-click Data1 and click Data Manager…
D. Right-click Data1 and click Properties.
70-417 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Exporting Templates
To export a Data Collector Set you create as a template for use on other computers, open Windows Performance Monitor, expand Data Collector Sets, right-click the Data Collector Set you want to export, and click Save Template . Select a directory in which to store the XML file and click Save . Reference: Create a Data Collector Set from a Template
QUESTION 33
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You discover that the performance of Server1 is poor. The results of a performance report generated on Server1 are shown in the following table. 70-417 dumps You need to identify the cause of the performance issue. What should you identify?
A. Insufficient processors
B. Excessive paging
C. Driver malfunction
D. Insufficient RAM
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Processor: %DPC Time. Much like the other values, this counter shows the amount of time that the processor spends servicing DPC requests. DPC requests are more often than not associated with the network interface. Processor: % Interrupt Time. This is the percentage of time that the processor is spending on handling Interrupts. Generally, if this value exceeds 50% of the processor time you may have a hardware issue. Some components on the computer can force this issue and not really be a problem. For example a programmable I/O card like an old disk controller card, can take up to 40% of the CPU time. A NIC on a busy IIS server can likewise generate a large percentage of processor activity.
Processor: % User Time. The value of this counter helps to determine the kind of processing that is affecting the system. Of course the resulting value is the total amount of non-idle time that was spent on User mode operations. This generally means application code. Processor: %Privilege Time. This is the amount of time the processor was busy with Kernel mode operations. If the processor is very busy and this mode is high, it is usually an indication of some type of NT service having difficulty, although user mode programs can make calls to the Kernel mode NT components to occasionally cause this type of performance issue. Memory: Pages/sac This value is often confused with Page Faults/sec. The Pages/sec counter is a combination of Pages Input/sec and Pages Output/sec counters. Recall that Page Faults/sec
is a combination of hard page faults and soft page faults. This counter, however, is a general indicator of how often the system is using the hard drive to store or retrieve memory associated data.
QUESTION 34
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 hosts 10 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2012 R2 and are members of the domain. You need to ensure that the first time a service named Service1 fails on a virtual machine, the virtual machine is moved to a different node. You configure Service1 to be monitored from Failover Cluster Manager. What should you configure on the virtual machine?
A. From the General settings, modify the Startup type.
B. From the Recovery settings of Service1, set the First failure recovery action to Take No Action.
C. From the Recovery settings of Service1, set the First failure recovery action to Restart the Service.
D. From the General settings, modify the Service status.
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C. Configure the virtual machine to take no action through Hyper-V if the physical computer shuts down by modifying the Automatic Stop Action setting to None. Virtual machine state must be managed through the Failover Clustering feature.

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Latest Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 29
At any given distance from an antenna, which statement most accurately describes the relationship between the gain of an omnidirectional antenna and coverage?
A. The highest gain antenna will always provide the strongest signal
B. Gain is inversely related to vertical coverage
C. Gain is directly related to both vertical and horizontal coverage
D. Gain of an omnidirectional antenna has no effect on coverage
300-180 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
For planning a mesh link, which information is NOT required to have available for using the Aruba Outdoor Planner?
A. For directional antennas, expected directions between mounting locations
B. Desired Throughput on the Mesh Backhaul
C. Client Device info (power and typical antenna gain if available)
D. Locations believed to need bridging/mesh links due to lack of available Ethernet or fiber
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of “Design Margin” in the outdoor planner?
A. Higher design margin will decrease the displayed distance for client coverage
B. Increasing design margin will increase the predicted signal levels at the AP and client
C. At any given distance increasing design margin is added safety margin (in dB) for predicted vs measured results
D. Different design margins may be appropriate for client coverage vs. mesh links
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which statement best describes the use of EIRP limits in the outdoor planner?
A. The outdoor planner will automatically reduce AP output power based on the antenna selected and cable losses to ensure the displayed results are not based on unapproved EIRP levels
B. When preparing an outdoor plan, the user must ensure that EIRP levels are not exceeded by the utility
C. Before beginning a plan, the user must enter the maximum EIRP allowed for their regulatory domain
D. EIRP is not used by the outdoor planner
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
For 802.11n planning, which statement most accurately describes the results produced by the outdoor planner (choose one):
A. Maximum results presented require ability of the environment (physical channel) to support 2 spatial streams
B. 5 GHz models will always show higher available throughput
C. The use of a “short guard interval” will improve security but may still leave some gaps in protection
D. The results presented account for losses due to trees and buildings shown in Google Earth
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the best use of the imagery in Google Earth vs. a Facility Plan or CAD drawing for outdoor planning?
A. Google Earth imagery is useful for finding mounting locations
B. When possible, it is recommended to reference all locations to a scaled Facility Plan or CAD drawing and use the Google Earth aerial imagery for background information only
C. Google Earth imagery is usually more current than customer provided drawings and should be used as the primary reference
D. Google Earth aerial photos are easier to use for picking mounting locations
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Before uploading a kmz file to the Aruba Outdoor planner, what is the only folder that is REQUIRED to be present?
A. “Locations” folder containing placemarks
B. “Map” folder containing Google Maps
C. “CAD Overlay” containing the customer CAD file overlay
D. “Favorites” containing all of the above
300-180 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What are the different operation modes of the radio interface of the Aruba mesh router?
A. access, backhaul, and client
B. a, b, and g
C. access, gateway, and none
D. 2.4 G, 4.9 G, and 5.8 G
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
What is the maximum number of SSIDs per radio that an Aruba mesh router supports when it operates in access mode?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
300-180 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of WDS links per radio that the Aruba mesh router supports?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which routing protocol is used for internal routing by Aruba mesh router?
A. Static
B. AWR
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
In the output of the “show ip route” command on the Aruba mesh router, O means OSPF, and A means AWR. Which route is used as the destination of 10.10.0.2 mesh node?
A. O 10.0.0.0/8
B. A 10.0.0.0/8
C. O 10.10.0.0/24
D. A 10.10.0.0/24
300-180 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
How many gateways can the AWR protocol support?
A. only one gateway
B. only two gateways
C. only three gateways
D. multi-gateways
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? (Choose three)
A. Logging level debugging security process localdb
B. Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C. Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D. Logging level debugging security process crypto
E. Logging level debugging security process vpn
300-180 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 43
The screen captures below show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. employee
B. guest
C. contractor
D. logon
E. no role is assigned
300-180 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.  If machine authentication fails and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?
A. Employee
B. Guest
C. Captive Portal
D. Logon
E. No role will be assigned
Correct Answer: E

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CCNA Data Center, Cisco

Are you going to prepare Cisco 200-155 dumps exam? “Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies” is the name of Cisco 200-155 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Helpful CCNA Data Center 200-155 dumps DCICT pdf questions answers video study download. Pass4itsure Cisco 200-155 dumps exam questions answers are updated (85 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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200-155 Dumps

Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 42
Which is not part of Project Plan?
A. Project Scope Management Plan
B. Schedule Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan
D. Project Charter
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
All are part of Project Plan except project charter.
QUESTION 43
Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase?
A. Information management
B. Maintain scope statement
C. Maintain Charter
D. Maintain Closing document
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the most important tasks of the project manager during the Execution and Control phases of the project is the management of information.
QUESTION 44
Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Funding limit reconciliation
C. Reserves analysis
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parametric Estimating: Estimating the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate.
QUESTION 45
You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RFP (Request for proposal) is done in Plan Procurements process.
QUESTION 46
Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?
A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals
B. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals
C. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded
D. Al1 of the above
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Strategic planning determines which projects will be choose or sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded.
QUESTION 47
The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of ________.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality rules
D. CMM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Ishikawa diagram, the control charts, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of basic tools of quality control.
QUESTION 48
Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?
A. Acceptance
B. shaie
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Acceptance is when no change to the project is made for a risk. A contingency can be set aside to offset the impact of the risk.
QUESTION 49
Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?
A. Project justification
B. Project product
C. Project manager authority
D. Project objective
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project charter provides the project manager with authority.
QUESTION 50
What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5  to 10?
A. 35
B. 5
C. 15
D. 75
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Delta = n*(n-1)/2 – n1*(n1-1)/2 where n = individuals and n1 = new individuals 10-45 = 35 No of communication channels: n*(n-1)/2 where n = individual
QUESTION 51
Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.
A. Initiation Process
B. Project closer Process
C. Estimation Process
D. Closing process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Collect Requirements process starts in “Project Planning Phase” and uses the outputs of the Initiation Process.
QUESTION 52
You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.
A. Has ended before its stated objective
B. ‘s st'” cunning but missing resources
C. Will be closed due to lack of resources
D. None of the above
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives.
QUESTION 53
When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Top-down estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total: It is more accurate. Analogous estimating: Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating and uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. Parametric estimating: Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs (e.g., price per square meter).
QUESTION 54
Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Leader
C. Sponsor
D. Project Team
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project Manager is responsible for the creation of the final project plan.
QUESTION 55
Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?
A. Project manager
B. QA manager
C. Project planner
D. Team ‘ead
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project manager has the responsibility for Plan Quality.
QUESTION 56
Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.
A. Written down
B. Understandable
C. Not understandable
D. No need to write
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Assumptions that are not written down are the most dangerous.

QUESTION 57
Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project team
C. Project manager
D. Senior Management
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The project sponsor must have the authority to select and fund the project.

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CCIE Service Provider, Cisco

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.1
Q&As: 618

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400-201 dumps

Latest Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (November 2017)#

QUESTION 77
The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
400-201 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
When accessing Management Console from the Web, the built in admin account uses the regular
password of CLI access (NOT the enable password of admin account)
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
Which console services are NOT available on the ProxySG?
A. SSH
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. Serial
E. All the above are available
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
The ProxySG operating system is based on________.
A. a customized, object oriented version of FreeBSD
B. a custom built operating system with integrated caching and compression
C. a Linux Kernel 2.6.x with byte caching and compression
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which appliance does not need any licensing and is fully operable after deployment?
A. ProxyAV
B. ProxySG
C. ProxyRA
D. Blue Coat Director
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
ProxySG can provide all these services to IM clients — client authentication at a proxy, message reflection,
policy enforcement and logging.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Can server initiate an HTTP transaction?
A. It cannot
B. It can for e.g. Web-based instant messaging, AJAX and similar server-push applications
C. It can only for some HTTP request methods
400-201 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
The ProxySG can create configurable access logs for FTP, HTTP, and Telnet but not for Peer-to-Peer or
Real Media
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which of the following policies CANNOT be implemented on the ProxyAV? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Blocking viruses, worms, spyware and trojans
(b) Blocking file types using apparent data type (file signature) (c) Blocking files that exceed a size limit set
by the administrator (d) Blocking password protected archive files
A. a only
B. b only
C. c only
D. d only
E. All of the above can be implemented with the Proxy AV
400-201 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
The SSL certificate returned by the Management Console upon HTTPS access____.
A. is birth certificate, which depends on the device serial number only; it can be cached for the whole
lifetime of the ProxySG
B. is generated anew automatically every time ProxySG performs initial setup
C. has to be generated explicitly from the CLI
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
ProxySG has to be deployed inline (in bridging mode) or virtually inline (using WCCP or an L4 switch) in
order to block IM traffic.
A. True
B. False

400-201 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 88
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier policy_denied?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Which of the following are true about the rules processing in the VPM? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Rules are processed in a top down sequence.
(b) Layers are processed from left to right regardless of type.
(c) Layers are processed according to layer type.
(d) Layers of the same type are processed from left to right.
A. None of the above
B. b. c & d only
C. a, b & c only
D. a, c & d only
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Which capabilities are limited in Blue coat Reporter standard edition compared to Enterprise edition?
(Choose all that apply)
(a)Data profile number is limited to five
(b)Reports can be displayed, but cannot be saved as PDF or CSV (c)Only single processor is supported
(d)Report customization is limited
A. a, b & c only
B. a, b & d only
C. a, c & d only
D. b, c & d only
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
Find the configuration or management activity that is NOT among the functions of the Blue Coat Director
CANNOT be used?
A. Configuration of a large number of ProxySG appliances
B. Policy updates on ProxySG appliances
C. Virus definition updates for AV scanning
D. Setup and licensing
E. All the above actions can be done by a Director
400-201 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
In the VPM, source triggers can be used in conjunction with the ICAP RESPMOD action.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV is accessed in ICAP REQMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOD mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
D. Proxy SG with ProxyAV is deployed as a reverse proxy
400-201 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
What are the best practices using anti-virus software on aWindows machine running Blue Coat Reporter?
A. Do not use anti-virus software as the log files cannot contain viruses
B. Perform scans as you would for any Windows server
C. Perform scans only during low activity of ProxySG
D. Perform scans, but bypass certain directories containing frequently changing files
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Coaching or splash pages have to be configured through CPL rather than VPM.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Which HTTP error code corresponds to the ProxySG default exception identifier authentication_failed?
A. 403
B. 404
C. 503
D. 401
400-201 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
How many different anti-virus scanning engines can you run simultaneously on a ProxyAV?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
Which WAN Optimization feature can accelerate the transfer of several similar, uncompressed files
between two locations? (Two files are called similar, if their editing distance is small, compared to the size
of the files. For example, if one file can be obtained from another one by inserting or deleting a small
fragment.)

A. Protocol Optimization
B. Object Caching
C. Byte Caching
D. Bandwidth Management
400-201 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft, Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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Latest Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (October 2017)#

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1
and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2.
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being
moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
70-412 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named
UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll
for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named
User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a
certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on
the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on
the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll
certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users
need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not
compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
70-412 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-412 dumps

You need to add an additional UPN Suffix.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 16
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data
without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
70-412 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which command can be used with “static options” to list all the static server
configurationoptions?
A. sp_configure
B. sp_helpconfig
C. sp_monitorconfig
D. sp_poolconfig
E. sp_dboption
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
To determine if a configuration parameter is static or dynamic run
specifying the parameter namE. (Choose 2)
A. sp_help
B. sp_configure
C. sp_helpconfig
D. sp_monitorconfig
E. sp_monitorX
70-412 vce 
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 19
If a transaction places an update lock on a data page, what type of lock will a second
transaction get if it attempts to read the data using a SELECT statement?
A. Another UPDATE lock
B. SHARED lock
C. EXCLUSIVE lock
D. No lock is placed as process will be blocked
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
To allow dirty reads, which of the following should be executed?
A. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 3
B. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL 0
C. HOLDLOCK
D. NOHOLDLOCK
70-412 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
What is the system stored procedure used to display metadata cache usage statistics?
A. sp_configure
B. sp_helpconfig
C. sp_cacheconfig
D. sp_monitorconfig
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following configuration parameters affect the amount of memory
required per user connection? (Choose 2)
A. user log cache size
B. heap memory per user
C. number of open objects
D. max network packet size
E. default network packet size
70-412 dumps 
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following statements can be run against an allpages table?
A. reorg reclaim_space
B. reorg forwarded_rows
C. reorg compact
D. reorg rebuild
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following commands allow you to specify the partition? (Choose 3)
A. bcp in
B. insert
C. reorg rebuild tablename
D. truncate table
E. update statistics
70-412 pdf 
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION NO: 25
represents the average amount of repeated data in a column.
A. Cluster ratio
B. Total density
C. Histogram weight
D. RangeselectivityX
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
Given the following partial histogram from optdiag, what percentage of the rows for
thiscolumn have a value of 500.00?
Step Weight Value
1 0.00000000 < 0.00
2 0.36899999 = 0.00
3 0.00000000 < 1000.00
4 0.07100000 = 1000.00
5 0.00000000 < 2000.00
6 0.06580000 = 2000.00
A. 0.0%
B. 36.9%
C. 7.1%
D. 6.6%

70-412 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
The session level setting sort_resource is used for diagnostic purposes to see
whatdegree of parallelism would be used to
A. create a tablE.
B. execute a query.
C. partition a tablE.
D. create an index.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 28
Which table identifies the process that has the oldest active transaction and how long
thattransaction has been open?
A. master..sysprocesses
B. master..syslogshold
C. master..syslogins
D. master..syslocks
E. master..systransactions
70-412 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following may lead to increased deadlocks? (Choose 2)
A. Converting tables todatarows locking
B. Accessing tables in a different order in different programs
C. Decreasing the memory allocated to the procedure cache
D. Using isolation level 3
E. Configuring large I/O buffer pools
Answer: B,D

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