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The latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
What is the lowest combination of ASA model and license providing 1 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. ASA 5505 with failover license option
B. ASA 5510 Security+ license option
C. ASA 5520 with any license option
D. ASA 5540 with AnyConnect Essentials License option
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the best description of a unified ACL on a Cisco Firewall
A. An Ipv4 ACL with Ipv4 support
B. An ACL the support EtherType in additional Ipv6
C. An ACL with both Ipv4 and Ipv6 functionality
D. An Ipv6 ACL with Ipv4 backward compatitiblity
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/intro_intro.html

QUESTION 4
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.

QUESTION 5
What are Options of capture command
A. host
B. real-time
C. type
Correct Answer: BC
real-time, type, interface,buffer, match, packet-lenght,trace,circular-buffer, ethernet-type,acces-list, headers-only

QUESTION 6
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html

QUESTION 8
CSM (or Prime Infra) Dashboards

Correct Answer:
Top Destinations –This report ranks the session destinations of all built/deny firewall events received by Security
Manager. The report shows the destination IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the
percentage
of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph
that represents a specific destination to see report information about the top sources and top services associated with
that
destination (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Sources –This report ranks the session sources of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager. The
report shows the source IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the percentage of the
count
compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that
represents a specific source to see report information about the top destinations and top services associated with that
source (see
Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Services –This report ranks the destination services of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager.
TCP and UDP services include the port number. The report shows the service, the count of the number of events for
each
service, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in
the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that represents a specific service to see report information about the top destinations and top
sources associated with that service (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Infected Hosts –This report ranks the top infected hosts for traffic originating from infected hosts to black- or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the IP address of the infected
host
with the firewall interface name on which the event was detected in parentheses, the count of the number of
connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each address, the count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report.
Top Malware Ports –This report ranks the top destination ports for traffic originating from infected hosts to black or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the destination malware port,
the
count of the number of connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each port, the count of the number of
connections that were blocked (dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum
of
all counts in the report.
Top Malware Sites –This report ranks the top botnet sites (black or gray-listed sites) for all inbound and outbound
sessions based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the following information:
IP Address–The IP address that is indicated as the malicious host in botnet events, either on the black list or the grey
list.
Malware Site–The domain name or IP address in the dynamic filter database to which the traffic was initiated.
List Type–Whether the site is on the black list or the grey list. Connections Logged–The count of the number of
connections logged or monitored for each site. Connections Blocked–The count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering for each site. Threat Level–The botnet threat level for the site, from very low to very
high, or none. Category–The category of threat the site poses as defined in the botnet database, such as botnet,
Trojan,
spyware, and so on.
VPN dashboards
Top Bandwidth Users –This report ranks the VPN users who consumed the most bandwidth. The report shows the
usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and received, and the percentage of reported bandwidth used
by
each user.
Top Duration Users –This report ranks the VPN users who remained connected to the network for the longest time. The
report shows the usernames, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the percentage
of
the reported duration by each user.
The chart shows duration in seconds.
Top Throughput Users –This report ranks the VPN users who sent and received data at the highest throughput rate.
The report shows the usernames, the throughput for each user in kbps, and the percentage of reported throughput by
each
user. The throughput is calculated as 8.0 *(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is connected in
seconds*1000.0).
Connection Profile Report –This report provides a count of user, session, and summary of the bandwidth utilization and
throughput usage for each remote access connection profile. The default report contains this information for all devices
for the previous hour. You can customize the report in several different ways.
User Report –This report provides a summary of the bandwidth utilization, connection duration and throughput usage
for each remote access VPN user. The report shows the usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and
received, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the throughput for each user in kbps.
The throughput is throughput is calculated as 8.0*(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is
connected in seconds*1000.0). Beginning with Security Manager 4.7, the User Report provides both user-level details
and session-level details:
User-Level Details –For a particular user, the user-level details represent the combined value of all that user\\’s
sessions: Username, Total no. of Sessions, Bandwidth, Duration, and Throughput. Session-Level Details –Expanding
the tree
displays the session-level details for each session that a particular user has a VPN connection with; the session-level
details encompass the Session ID, Login Time, Logout Time, Bandwidth, Throughput, and Duration of the Session.
(Here
the logout time is calculated by using the formula Logout Time = Login Time + Duration.)

QUESTION 9
What are two reasons to implement Cisco IOS MPLS Bandwidth-Assured Layer 2 Services? (Choose two.)
A. guaranteed bandwidth and peak rates as well as low cycle periods, regardless of which systems access the device
B. increased resiliency through MPLS FRR for AToM circuits and better bandwidth utilization through MPLS TE
C. enabled services over an IP/MPLS infrastructure, for enhanced MPLS Layer 2 functionality
D. provided complete proactive protection against frame and device spoofing
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which URL matches the regex statement “http”*/”www.cisco.com/”*[^E]”xe”?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three configurations tasks do you perform to allow Not Flow on a Cisco ASA G500 Series firewall? (Choose
three)
A. Apply the newly created class map to the global policy.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map match interesting traffic.
D. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
F. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction
Correct Answer: ACE

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data.
On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the data by using Azure Machine Learning models. Once an anomaly
is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You expose a Machine Learning model as an Azure web service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies: temporary and persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning-anomaly-detection

QUESTION 2
You are designing an AI solution that will use IoT devices to gather data from conference attendees, and then later
analyze the data. The IoT devices will connect to an Azure IoT hub.
You need to design a solution to anonymize the data before the data is sent to the IoT hub.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: Create a storage container
ASA Edge jobs run in containers deployed to Azure IoT Edge devices.
Step 2: Create an Azure Stream Analytics Edge Job
Azure Stream Analytics (ASA) on IoT Edge empowers developers to deploy near-real-time analytical intelligence closer
to IoT devices so that they can unlock the full value of device-generated data.
Scenario overview:

QUESTION 3
Your company has 1,000 AI developers who are responsible for provisioning environments in Azure. You need to
control the type, size, and location of the resources that the developers can provision. What should you use?
A. Azure Key Vault
B. Azure service principals
C. Azure managed identities
D. Azure Security Center
E. Azure Policy
Correct Answer: B
When an application needs access to deploy or configure resources through Azure Resource Manager in Azure Stack,
you create a service principal, which is a credential for your application. You can then delegate only the necessary
permissions to that service principal.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-create-service-principals

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You create a managed identity for AKS, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 5
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (a little piece of code) that can be used for. g. event-driven
applications.
The general rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event-driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high-value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when
you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection
to the AKS node.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 7
You have thousands of images that contain text.
You need to process the text from the images to a machine-readable character stream.
Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?
A. the Image Moderation API
B. Text Analytics
C. Translator Text
D. Computer Vision
Correct Answer: D
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract them
recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Use Content Moderator\\’s machine-assisted image moderation and human-in-the-loop Review tool to moderate
images for adult and racy content. Scan images for text content and extract that text, and detect faces. You can match
images against custom lists, and take further action.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

QUESTION 8
Your company has a data team of Transact-SQL experts.
You plan to ingest data from multiple sources into Azure Event Hubs.
You need to recommend which technology the data team should use to move and query data from Event Hubs to Azure
Storage. The solution must leverage the data team\\’s existing skills.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. Azure Event Grid
C. Apache Kafka streams
D. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: B
Event Hubs Capture is the easiest way to automatically deliver streamed data in Event Hubs to an Azure Blob storage
or Azure Data Lake store. You can subsequently process and deliver the data to any other storage destinations of your
choice, such as SQL Data Warehouse or Cosmos DB.
You to capture data from your event hub into a SQL data warehouse by using an Azure function triggered by an event
grid.
Example:

First, you create an event hub with the Capture feature enabled and set Azure blob storage as the destination. Data
generated by wind turbine generator is streamed into the event hub and is automatically captured into Azure Storage
as
Avro files.
Next, you create an Azure Event Grid subscription with the Event Hubs namespace as its source and the Azure
Function endpoint as its destination. Whenever a new Avro file is delivered to the Azure Storage blob by the Event Hubs
Capture
feature, Event Grid notifies the Azure Function with the blob URI. The Function then migrates data from the blob to a
SQL data warehouse.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/store-captured-data-data-warehouse

QUESTION 9
Your company has factories in 10 countries. Each factory contains several thousand IoT devices.
The devices present status and trending data on a dashboard.
You need to ingest the data from the IoT devices into a data warehouse.
Which two Microsoft Azure technologies should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Stream Analytics
B. Azure Data Factory
C. an Azure HDInsight cluster
D. Azure Batch
E. Azure Data Lake
Correct Answer: CE
With Azure Data Lake Store (ADLS) serving as the hyper-scale storage layer and HDInsight serving as the Hadoop-
based compute engine services. It can be used for prepping large amounts of data for insertion into a Data Warehouse
References: https://www.blue-granite.com/blog/azure-data-lake-analytics-holds-a-unique-spot-in-the-modern-data-architecture

QUESTION 10
You are configuring data persistence for a Microsoft Bot Framework application. The application requires a structured
NoSQL cloud data store.
You need to identify a storage solution for the application. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you identify?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure HDInsight
D. Azure Table storage
Correct Answer: D
Table Storage is a NoSQL key-value store for rapid development using massive semi-structured datasets
You can develop applications on Cosmos DB using popular NoSQL APIs.
Both services have a different scenario and pricing model.
While Azure Storage Tables is aimed at high capacity on a single region (optional secondary read-only region but no
failover), indexing by PK/RK and storage-optimized pricing; Azure Cosmos DB Tables aims for high throughput (single-
digit
millisecond latency), global distribution (multiple failovers), SLA-backed predictive performance with automatic indexing
of each attribute/property and a pricing model focused on throughput.
References:
https://db-engines.com/en/system/Microsoft+Azure+Cosmos+DB%3BMicrosoft+Azure+Table+Storage

QUESTION 11
You are designing an AI solution that must meet the following processing requirements:
Use a parallel processing framework that supports the in-memory processing of high volumes of data.
Use in-memory caching and a columnar storage engine for Apache Hive queries.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Apache Spark
Apache Spark is a parallel processing framework that supports in-memory processing to boost the performance of big-
data analytic applications. Apache Spark in Azure HDInsight is the Microsoft implementation of Apache Spark in the
cloud.
Box 2: Interactive Query
Interactive Query provides In-memory caching and improved columnar storage engine for Hive queries.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/interactive-query/apache-interactive-query-get-started

QUESTION 12
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using
Azure Machine Learning algorithms.
The developers of the application use a mix of Windows- and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to
shared GitHub repositories.
You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application.
What is the best tool to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B. Azure Notebooks
C. Azure Machine Learning Studio
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution that will ingest data from an Azure IoT Edge device, preprocess the data in Azure Machine
Learning, and then move the data to Azure HDInsight for further processing.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Export Data The Export data to Hive option in the Export Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. This
option is useful when you are working with very large datasets, and want to save your machine learning experiment data
to a Hadoop cluster or HDInsight distributed storage. Box 2: Apache Hive Apache Hive is a data warehouse system for
Apache Hadoop. Hive enables data summarization, querying, and analysis of data. Hive queries are written in HiveQL,
which is a query language similar to SQL. Box 3: Azure Data Lake Default storage for the HDFS file system of
HDInsight clusters can be associated with either an Azure Storage account or an Azure Data Lake Storage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-to-hive-query
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/hdinsight-use-hive

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QUESTION 1
You have a login-path named “adamlocal” that was created by using the mysql_config_editor command.
You need to check what is defined for this login_path to ensure that it is correct for you deployment.
You execute this command:
$ mysql_config_editor print login-path=adamlocal
What is the expected output of this command?
A. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is printed in plain text.
B. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is shown only when you provide the password
option.
C. The command prints all parameter for the login-path. The password is replaced with stars.
D. The command prints the encrypted entry for the login-path. The is only possible to see if an entry exists.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The `allplicationdb\\’ is using innoDB and consuming a large amount of file system space. You have a / backup partition
available on NFS where backups are stored.
You investigate and gather the following information:
[mysqld] Datadir=/var/lib/mysql/ Innodb_file_per_table=0
Three tables are stored in the innoDB shared tablespace and the details are as follows: The table data_current has
1,000,000 rows.
The table data_reports has 1,500,000 rows.
The table data_archive has 4,500,000 rows.
Shell> is -1 /var/lib/mysql/
-rw-rw—- 1 mysql mysql 744G Aug 26 14:34 ibdata1 -rw-rw—- 1 mysql mysql 480M Aug 26 14:34 ib_logfile0 -rw-rw—-
1 mysql mysql 480M Aug 26 14:34 ib_logfile1 …
You attempt to free space from ibdata1 by taking a mysqldump of the data_archive table and storting it on your backup
partition.
Shell> mysqldump u root p applicationdb data_archive > /backup/data_archive.sql Mysql> DROP TABLE data_archive;
Which set of actions will allow you to free disk space back to the file system?
A. Execute OPTIMIZE TABLE so that the InnoDB engine frees unused pages on disk back to the file system: Mysql>
OPTIMIZE TABLE data_current, data_reports;
B. Set the server to use its own tablespace, and then alter the table so that data is moved from the shared tablespace to
its own: Mysql> SET GLOBAL innodb_file_per_table=1; Mysql> ALTER TABLE data_current ENGINE=InnoDB; Mysql>
ALTER TABLE data_repors ENGINE=InnoDB;
C. Take a backup, stop the server, remove the data files, and restore the backup: Shell> mysqldump u root p
applicationdb / > /backup/applicationdb.sql Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql stop Shell> cd /var/lib/mysql/ Shell> rm ibdata1
ib_logfile0 ib_logfile1 Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql start Shell> mysql u root p applicationdb
D. Enable compression on the table, causing InnoDB to release unused pages on disk to the file system: Mysql> SET
GLOBLE innodb_file_per_table=1; Mysql> SET GLOBLE innodb_file_format=Barramcuda; Mysql> ALTER TABLE
data_current ROW_FORMAT=COMPRESSED KEY_BLOCK_SIZE=8; Mysql> ALTER TABLE data_history
ROW_FORMAT=COMPRESSED KEY_BLOCK_SIZE=8;
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
The following event detail is found in the audit log:

Which two points can be concluded from the given event?
A. A connection was blocked by a firewall or a similar security mechanism.
B. A connection was attempted via socket rather than TCP.
C. A connection failed because the proxy user privileges did not match the login user.
D. A connection as the user kate was successful.
E. A connection failed due to authentication being unsuccessful.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You want to shutdown a running Mysql Server cleanly.
Which three commands that are valid on either Windows or Linux will achieve this?
A. Shell> pkill u mysql mysqld_safe
B. Shell> service mysql safe_exit
C. Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql stop
D. Shell> mysqladmin u root p shutdown
E. Mysql> STOP PROCESS mysqld;
F. Shell> net stop mysql
G. Shell> nmc mysql shutdown
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 5
You want a record of all queries that are not using indexes.
How would you achieve this?
A. By enabling the Slow Query Log because all queries that are not using indexes will be logged automatically
B. By enabling the Error Log because not using indexes is an error
C. By enabling the Slow Query Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
D. By enabling the Error Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two are correct steps in taking a binary backup of MyISAM tables?
A. Always stop the server prior to the backup.
B. Stop the server or lock the tables prior to the backup.
C. Stop the server or lock the databases prior to the backup.
D. Make a copy of the .frm, .myd, and the .myi files.
E. Make a copy of the binary log and tablespace files.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
While reviewing the MySQL error log, you see occasions where MySQL has exceeded the number of file handles
allowed to it by the operating system.
Which method will reduce the number of file handles in use?
A. Disconnecting idle localhost client sessions
B. Implementing storage engine data compression options
C. Relocating your data and log files to separate storage devices
D. Activating the MySQL Enterprise thread pool plugin
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
The validate_password plugin is loaded and displays the following settings in global variables: Mysql> SHOW
VARIABLES LIKE `validate_password%\\’;

When attempting to set your password, you get the following error:
Mysql> SET PASSWORD = PASSWORD (`[email protected]%\\’);
ERROR 1819 (HY000): Your password does not satisfy the current policy requirements
What is the cause of the error?
A. The password is eight characters long, but needs to exceed validate_password_length to be valid.
B. All of the MEDIUM password policy requirements have not been honored.
C. The password matches a substring Hover as a dictionary word.
D. The password does not match the validate_passoword_number_count requirement.
E. There is no dictionary file defined, so password validation cannot work as expected.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which three tasks can be performed by using the performance Schema?
A. Finding queries that are not using indexes
B. Finding rows that are locked by InnoDB
C. Finding client connection attributes
D. Finding the part of a code in which a single query is spending time
E. Finding the size of each table
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true about FLUSH LOGS command?
A. It requires the RELOAD, FILE, and DROP privileges.
B. It closes and reopens all log files.
C. It closes and sends binary log files to slave servers.
D. It flushes dirty pages in the buffer pool to the REDO logs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information
F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 12
You want to start monitoring statistics on the distribution of storage engines that are being used and the
average sizes of tables in the various databases.
Some details are as follows:
The Mysql instance has 400 databases.
Each database on an average consists of 25-50 tables.
You use the query:
SELECT TABLE_SCHEMA,
`ENGINE\\’,
COUNT (*),
SUM (data_length) total_size
FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_TYPE = `BASE TABLE\\’
GROUP BY TABLE_SCHEMA, `ENGINE\\’
;
Why is this query slow to execute?
A. Counting and summarizing all table pages in the InnoDB shared tablespace is time consuming.
B. Collecting information requires various disk-level operations and is time consuming.
C. Aggregating details from various storage engine caches for the final output is time consuming.
D. Collecting information requires large numbers of locks on various INFORMATION_SCHEMA tables.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server that has very limited memory but has a very large table.
You will use mysqldump to back up this table.
Which option will ensure mysqldump will process a row at a time instead of buffering a set of rows?
A. — quick
B. — skip-buffer
C. — single-transaction
D. — tab
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 Exam Practice Questions and Answers: 642-737 IAUWS

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QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to
enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 31
An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. 802.1x
B. Static WEP
C. WPA + WPA2
D. CKIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
What NAC appliance component is configured to create user roles, meet remediation requirements, and handle checking for device compliance?
A. NGS
B. NAA
C. NAS
D. NAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
All users on one of the two guest WLANs are failing to connect after a configuration change was made to a controller. What is the cause of the outage?
A. The interface or VLAN of the anchor controller and foreign controller no longer match.
B. The configuration of the failing WLAN no longer matches the foreign controllers.
C. The address of the NAC guest server has been changed.
D. The DHCP server on the foreign controller was changed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
An engineer is configuring 802.1x authentication on an autonomous AP. What two configuration commands must be included on the AP if the RADIUS server IP is 10.9.4.9? (Choose two.)
A. radius-server host 10.9.4.9 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813 key Cisco123
B. aaa new-model
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa attribute list 10.9.4.9
E. aaa group server radius 10.9.4.9
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP

QUESTION 36
DRAG DROP

QUESTION 37
DRAG DROP

QUESTION 38
DRAG DROP

QUESTION 39
DRAG DROP

QUESTION 40
DRAG DROP

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QUESTION 1
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the Internet by using DirectAccess.
Your company wants to deploy a new application to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements:
You need to deploy the new application to the tablets.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the application as an Application Virtualization (App-V) package. Install the App- V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the application as a published application on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. Install the application on a local drive on the tablets.
D. Install the application in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. Install Hyper-V on tablets. Install the application on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the application to Windows Store.
G. Install the application within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. Install the application within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company deploys Office 365 in a federated identity model. The environment has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) servers and two Web Application Proxy servers that are not joined to the domain.
All externally published applications that use Windows Authentication and are hosted on- premises must use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to log on.
You need deploy pre-authentication on the Web Application Proxy (WAP) servers.
What should you do first?
A. Enable Kerberos constrained delegation.
B. Join the WAP servers to the AD DS domain.
C. Remove and reinstall the AD FS role.D Remove and reinstall the WAP role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer.
The computer has a shared folder named C:\Marketing. The shared folder is on an NTFS volume.
The current NTFS and share permissions are configured as follows.

UserA is a member of both the Everyone group and the Marketing group. UserA must access C:\Marketing from across the network. You need to identify the effective permissions of UserA to the C:\Marketing folder.
What permission should you identify?
A. Full Control
B. Read and Execute
C. Read
D. Modify
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company plans to deploy Outlook as a managed app to all users. You deploy Microsoft Intune.
You must deploy an internally developed iOS line of business (LOB) app to all users in the sales department. These users must only be able to share data between Outlook and the internally developed LOB app.
You need to configure the environment for sales department users.
What should you do?
A. Configure a security policy that forces encryption.
B. Use the Intune App Wrapping Tool to repackage the internally developed LOB application.
C. Upload the internally developed LOB app to the Apple App Store. Deploy the app to all users in the sales department.
D. Use the Intune App Wrapping Tool to repackage the Outlook application. Set the value for the App ID to match to Application ID of the internally developed LOB application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator for a department that has Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a domain configuration.
You deploy an application to all computers in the domain.
You need to use group policy to restrict certain groups from running the application.
What should you do?
A. Set up DirectAccess.
B. Configure AppLocker.
C. Disable BitLocker.
D. Run the User State Management Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The company apps need to be made available to all mobile devices. You recently published the new applications in Azure.
What should you do?
A. In the Microsoft Azure admin portal, add users to the app collection for the apps.
B. In the MicrosoftAzure admin portal, enable multi-factor authentication.
C. Instruct users to download the Remote Desktop app from the appropriate vendor app store.
D. Run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet:Update-AzureRemoteAppCollection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You deploy Enterprise Mobility + Security, Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), and Microsoft Identity Manager.
You need to implement additional security when users remotely connect to corporate resources.
What should you implement?
A. System Center Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft Intune
C. Azure Rights Management Service
D. Azure Multi-Factor Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A company deploys Enterprise Mobility + Security. The company plans to use Azure Active Directory (AD) Premium to join all new Windows 10 devices.
Users must not be allowed to change the PowerSleep option.
You need to automatically apply custom power policies to all Windows 10 Azure AD joined devices.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure AD Premium Configuration page, enable automatic device enrollment.
B. Create a custom Poweroption Group Policy in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). Set the value of the PowerSleep option to False.C. Configure automatic enrollment into Microsoft Intune. Create and deploy a custom Compliance policy to all Windows 10 devices.
D. Configure automatic enrollment into Microsoft Intune for all Azure AD Premium joined devices. Apply a custom set of Open Mobile Alliance Uniform Resource Identifier (OMA- URI) settings to configure custom power settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A company plans to deploy Microsoft Office to mobile device users. You purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security licenses and deploy Microsoft Intune.
Company data must only be shared between applications approved by the company and Microsoft Office applications.
You need to ensure that users cannot share data with other applications.
What should you do?
A. Configure a managed application policy that requires a PIN code to access the application on the device.
B. Configure a conditional access policy that enforces application encryption on all devices.
C. Deploy and configure Azure Rights Management Services.
D. Configure a configuration policy that will enable a PIN code and deploy the policy to all Office users.
E. Configure a managed application policy that will restrict cut, copy, and paste with other non-managed applications.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You manage an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain that has 500 devices. All devices run Windows 7 Enterprise Edition. You deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager SP1.
You plan to upgrade all devices to Windows 10 Enterprise and encrypt the devices by using Microsoft BitLocker Administration and Monitoring (MBAM), Data secured with BitLocker must not be stored on USB devices.
You need to ensure that existing devices are ready for the upgrade.
What should you do?
A. Implement MBAM in thedomain. Create an MBAM group policy and apply the policy to all devices.
B. Verify that the System Center Configuration Manager agent is installed on all devices.
C. In the system BIOS, verify that all devices have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2 or higher chip. Enable the TPM chip.
D. Integrate MBAM with System Center Configuration Manager. Deploy the BitLocker prepare task sequence to all laptop computers.
E. From System Center Configuration Manager, create a custom deploy task sequence that enables MBAM. Deploy the task sequence to all Windows 7 devices.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You manage a network that includes Windows 10 Enterprise computers. All of the computers on the network are members of an Active Directory domain.
The company recently proposed a new security policy that prevents users from synchronizing applications settings, browsing history, favorites, and passwords from the computers with their Microsoft accounts.
You need to enforce these security policy requirements on the computers.
What should you do?
A. On the Group Policy Object, configure the Accounts: Block Microsoft accounts Group Policy setting to Users can’t add Microsoft accounts.
B. On the Group Policy Object, configure the Accounts: Block Microsoft accounts Group Policy setting to Users can’t add or log on with Microsoft accounts.
C. From each computer, navigate to Change Sync Settings and set the Sync Your Settings options for Apps, Browser, and Passwords to Off.
D. From each computer, navigate to Change Sync Settings and set the Sync Your Settings option to Off.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are a network administrator for a company that has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You purchase Enterprise Mobility Suite licenses. You implement synchronization by using a federated identity model.
Passwords for Sales team users often expire while they are travelling. When this happens, the users are not able to log on to the virtual private network (VPN) to perform their duties. Users must be able to reset their own passwords.
You need to enable password write-back.
Which application should you configure?
A. Web Application Proxy
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
D. Directory Synchronization (DirSync)
E. Azure Active Directory Connect
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
You configure Windows Remote Desktop to allow remote connections. You are testing the remote desktop connection.
When users that are not administrators sign in to the Remote Desktop Connection, the following error message displays: “To sign in remotely, you need the right to sign in through Remote Desktop Services.”
You need to ensure that all employees can access resources by using Remote Desktop Connection.
What should you do?
A. In the local group policy, configure the Remote Desktop Connection Client to prompt for credentials on the client.
B. Create a Group Policy Object that enables the Windows Firewall to allow inbound Remote Desktop Exceptions.
C. Ensure that the employee’s device is joined to the domain.
D. In Computer Management, add the Authenticated Users group to the Remote Users group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named global.fabrikam.com, and an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 server. The company has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You have not assigned any
licenses to users. You deploy Enterprise Mobility Suite (EMS). All client devices run Windows 7 and Office 2010.
You must protect emails that contain sensitive information from unauthorized access.
You need to ensure that users can easily protect sensitive emails as messages are sent.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure Exchange Online.
B. Configure Office 365 message encryption.
C. Upgrade client devices to Office 365 Pro Plus.
D. Assign an EMS license to each user.
E. Deploy theRights Management Service client.
F. Assign an Office 365 E3 license to each user.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 15
A company plans to actively manage mobile devices.
You need to create a list of all jailbroken devices after they are enrolled.
What should you use?
A. Azure Active Directory
B. System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager SP1
C. Intune
D. Azure Active Directory Domain Services
E. Azure Active Directory Device Registration Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company implements offline files for all Windows 10 devices.
A user reports that they are running low on free disk space.
You need to determine the amount of disk space being used by offline files on the user’s device.
What should you do?A. On the device, run the following Windows PowerShell command:Get-Disk | Where- Object IsOffline- Eq $True | Set-Disk-IsOffline $False
B. Instruct the user to launch Resource Manager.
C. On the device, run the following Windows PowerShell command:Get-Disk | Where- Object IsOffline- Eq $False | Set-Disk-IsOffline $True
D. Instruct the user to launch Sync Center.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise. Computer1 is configured to receive Windows updates from the Internet.
If a user is logged on to Computer1, you need to prevent Computer1 from automatically restarting without the logged on user’s consent after the installation of the Windows updates.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Defer upgrades setting.
B. Edit the Automatic App Update scheduled task.
C. Configure the Choose how updates are delivered setting.
D. Configure the Choose how updates are installed setting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
HOTSPOT
Your company upgrades a research and development department workstation to a Windows 10 Enterprise computer. Two of the workstation’s folders need to be encrypted. The folders are named C:\ProtectedFiles and C:\Backups.
You attempt to encrypt the folders. The output is shown in the following exhibit

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP
You have a desktop computer and a tablet that both run Windows 10 Enterprise.
The desktop computer is located at your workplace and is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains an Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. Several App-V applications are deployed to all desktop computers.
The tablet is located at your home and is a member of a workgroup. Both locations have Internet connectivity.
You need to be able to access all applications that run on the desktop computer from you tablet.
Which actions should you perform on each computer? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct computer. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content

QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
Your organization is deploying new Windows 10 devices. You create a new organizational unit that contains all Windows 10 devices.
You are preparing a new security policy for Windows 10 devices. Your organization requires audits on the use of removable storage devices on personal devices.
You need to enable audits of removable storage.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 server named Server1. Server1 has Remote Desktop Services (RDS) installed. You create a session collection named Session1 and publish a RemoteApp in Session1.
Server1 has an application named App1. The executable for App1 is C:\Apps\App1.exe. You need to ensure that App1 is available as a RemoteApp in Session1.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
You have a computer that runs Windows 10 Enterprise that contains the following folders:

You have a local user named User1. User1 has read and execute permission to Folder1.
You need to ensure that User1 can perform the following tasks:
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which permissions should you assign to User1 on each folder? To answer, drag the appropriate permissions to the correct folders. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Azure RemoteApp collection by using a custom template image. The image will contain Microsoft Word and Excel Office 365 ProPlus programs.
You need to install the Word and Excel programs. The solution must minimize the amount of Internet traffic used during installation.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 24
HOTSPOT
You upgrade 15 client devices to Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to configure the devices.
Which Control Panel applets should you use? To answer, select the appropriate applet from each list in the answer area. Each correct answer is worth one point.

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
A bank deploys Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). The bank plans to migrate to Azure Rights Management Services (Azure RMS) as an alternative to the on- premises based AD RMS.
The bank must follow regulatory policies that restrict access to certain financial documents.
In the table below, identify which function each platform supports.
NOTE: Make only selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point

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QUESTION 1
The dashboard widget indicates that FortiGuard Web Filtering is not reachable. However, AntiVirus, IPS, and Application Control have no problems as shown in the exhibit.

You contacted Fortinet’s customer service and discovered that your FortiGuard Web Filtering contract is still valid for several months.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. You have another security device in front of FortiGate blocking ports 8888 and 53.
B. FortiGuard Web Filtering is not enabled in any firewall policy.
C. You did not enable Web Filtering cache under Web Filtering and E-mail Filtering Options.
D. You have a firewall policy blocking ports 8888 and 53.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
A customer is authenticating users using a FortiGate and an external LDAP server. The LDAP user, John Smith, cannot authenticate. The administrator runs the debug command diagnose debug application fnbamd 255 while John Smith
attempts the authentication:
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is causing the problem?

A. The LDAP administrator password in the FortiGate configuration is incorrect.
B. The user, John Smith, does have an account in the LDAP server.
C. The user, John Smith, does not belong to any allowed user group.
D. The user, John Smith, is using an incorrect password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

The exhibit shows an explicit Web proxy configuration in a FortiGate device. The FortiGate is installed between a client with the IP address 172.16.10.4 and a Web server using port 80 with the IP address 10.10.3.4. The client Web browser is
properly sending HTTP traffic to the FortiGate Web proxy IP address 172.16.10.254.
Which two sniffer commands will capture this HTTP traffic? (Choose two.)
A. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and host 172.16.10.254′ 3
B. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.254 and host 10.10.3.4′ 3
C. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and port 8080′ 3
D. diagnose sniffer packet any `host 172.16.10.4 and host 10.10.3.4′ 3
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Your colleague has enabled virtual clustering to load balance traffic between the cluster units. You notice that all traffic is currently directed to a single FortiGate unit. Your colleague has applied the configuration shown in the exhibit

Which step would you perform to load balance traffic within the virtual cluster?
A. Issue the diagnose sys ha reset-uptime command on the unit that is currently processing traffic to enable load balancing.
B. Add an additional virtual cluster high-availability link to enable cluster load balancing.
C. Input Virtual Cluster domain 1 and Virtual Cluster domain 2 device priorities for each cluster unit.
D. Use the set override enable command on both units to allow the secondary unit to load balance traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A data center for example.com hosts several separate Web applications. Users authenticate with all of them by providing their Active Directory (AD) login credentials. You do not have access to Example, Inc.’s AD server. Your solution must
do the following:
– provide single sign-on (SSO) for all protected Web applications
– prevent login brute forcing
– scan FTPS connections to the Web servers for exploits
– scan Webmail for OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities such as session cookie hijacking, XSS, and SQL injection attacks
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Apply FortiGate deep inspection to FTPS. It must forward FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. Configure FortiWeb to query the AD server, and apply SSO for Web requests. FortiWeb must forward FTPS directly to the Web servers
without inspection, but proxy HTTP/HTTPS and block Web attacks.
B. Deploy FortiDDos to block brute force attacks. Configure FortiGate to forward only FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. Configure FortiWeb to query the AD server, and apply SSO for Web requests. Also configure it to scan FTPS and
Web traffic, then forward allowed traffic to the Web servers.
C. Use FortiGate to authenticate and proxy HTTP/HTTPS; to verify credentials, FortiGate queries the AD server. Also configure FortiGate to scan FTPS before forwarding, and to mitigate SYN floods. Configure FortiWeb to block Web attacks.
D. Install FSSO Agent on servers. Configure FortiGate to inspect FTPS. FortiGate will forward FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. FortiWeb must block Web attacks, then forward all traffic to the Web servers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A company wants to protect against Denial of Service attacks and has launched a new project. They want to block the attacks that go above a certain threshold and for some others they are just trying to get a baseline of activity for those
types of attacks so they are letting the traffic pass through without action. Given the following:
– The interface to the Internet is on WAN1.
– There is no requirement to specify which addresses are being protected or protected from.
– The protection is to extend to all services.
– The tcp_syn_flood attacks are to be recorded and blocked.
– The udp_flood attacks are to be recorded but not blocked.
– The tcp_syn_flood attack’s threshold is to be changed from the default to 1000.
The exhibit shows the current DoS-policy.

Which policy will implement the project requirements?

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Your security department has requested that you implement the OpenSSL.TLS.Heartbeat.Information.Disclosure signature using an IPS sensor to scan traffic destined to the FortiGate. You must log all packets that attempt to exploit this
vulnerability. Referring to the exhibit, which two configurations are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command syntax would you use to configure the serial number of a FortiGate as its host name?

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. The packet failed the HMAC validation.
B. The packet did not match any of the local IPsec SAs.
C. The packet was protected with an unsupported encryption algorithm.
D. The IPsec negotiation failed because the SPI was unknown.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are asked to establish a VPN tunnel with a service provider using a third-party VPN device. The service provider has assigned subnet 30.30.30.0/24 for your outgoing traffic going towards the services hosted by the provider on network
20.20.20.0/24. You have multiple computers which will be accessing the remote services hosted by the service provider.

Which three configuration components meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Configure an IP Pool of type Overload for range 30.30.30.10-30.30.30.10. Enable NAT on a policy from your LAN forwards the VPN tunnel and select that pool.
B. Configure IPsec phase 2 proxy IDs for a source of 10.10.10.0/24 and destination of 20.20.20.0/24.
C. Configure an IP Pool of Type One-to-One for range 30.30.30.10-30.30.30.10. Enable NAT on a policy from your LAN towards the VPN tunnel and select that pool.
D. Configure a static route towards the VPN tunnel for 20.20.20.0/24.
E. Configure IPsec phase 2 proxy IDs for a source of 30.30.30.0/24 and destination of 20.20.20.0/24.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A university is looking for a solution with the following requirements:
– wired and wireless connectivity
– authentication (LDAP)
– Web filtering, DLP and application control
– data base integration using LDAP to provide access to those students who are up-to-date with their monthly payments
– support for an external captive portal
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. FortiGate for wireless controller and captive portal
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication and REST API for DB integration
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
B. FortiGate for wireless controller
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication, captive portal and REST API for DB integration FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
C. FortiGate for wireless control and user authentication
FortiAuthenticator for captive portal and REST API for DB integration
FortiAP for wireless connectivity
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAnalyzer for log and report
D. FortiGate for wireless controller
FortiAP for wireless connectivity and captive portal
FortiSwitch for PoE connectivity
FortiAuthenticator for user authentication and REST API for DB integration
FortiAnalyzer for log and reports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

A customer wants to secure the network shown in the exhibit with a full redundancy design.
Which security design would you use?
A. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between DD and AA, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
B. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between BB and CC, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
C. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between BB and AA, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
D. Place a FortiGate FGCP Cluster between DD and FF, then connect it to SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A customer has the following requirements:
– local peer with two Internet links
– remote peer with one Internet link
– secure traffic between the two peers
– granular control with Accept policies
Which solution provides security and redundancy for traffic between the two peers?
A. a fully redundant VPN with interface mode configuration
B. a partially redundant VPN with interface mode configuration
C. a partially redundant VPN with tunnel mode configuration
D. a fully redundant VPN with tunnel mode configuration
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14

How would you apply security to the network shown in the exhibit?
A. Replace RW1 with a ruggedized FortiGate and RW2 with a normal FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiGate to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized
FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
B. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiGate to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a FortiAP to
provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
C. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the Web filter. Place a FortiWeb to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized FortiAP to
provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
D. Replace RW1 with a normal FortiGate and RW2 with a ruggedized FortiGate. Enable industrial category on the application control. Place a FortiWeb to secure Web servers. Configure IPsec to secure sensors data. Place a ruggedized
FortiAP to provide Wi-Fi to the sensors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which command detects where a routing path is broken?
A. exec traceroute
B. exec route ping
C. diag route null
D. diag debug route
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Virtual Domains (VDOMs) allow a FortiGate administrator to do what?
A. Group two or more FortiGate units to form a single virtual device.
B. Split a physical FortiGate unit into multiple virtual devices.
C. Create multiple VLANs in a single physical interface,
D. Group multiple physical interfaces to form a single virtual interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You notice that your FortiGate’s memory usage is very high and that the unit’s performance is adversely affected. You want to reduce memory usage.
Which three commands would meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 18
The SECOPS team in your company has started a new project to store all logging data in a disaster recovery center. All FortiGates will log to a secondary FortiAnalyzer and establish a TCP session to send logs to the syslog server.
Which two configurations will achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
You want to enable traffic between 2001:db8:1::/64 and 2001:db8:2::/64 over the public IPv4 Internet.

Given the CLI configuration shown in the exhibit, which two additional settings are required on this device to implement tunneling for the IPv6 transition? (Choose two.)
A. IPv4 firewall policies to allow traffic between the local and remote IPv6 subnets.
B. IPv6 static route to the destination phase2 destination subnet.
C. IPv4 static route to the destination phase2 destination subnet.
D. IPv6 firewall policies to allow traffic between the local and remote IPv6 subnets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20

You have implemented FortiGate in transparent mode as shown in the exhibit. User1 from the Internet is trying to access the 192.168.10.10 Web servers.
Which two statements about this scenario are true? (Choose two.)
A. User1 would be able to access the Web server intermittently.
B. User1 would not be able to access any of the Web servers at all.
C. FortiGate learns Web servers MAC address when the Web servers transmit packets.
D. FortiGate always flood packets to both Web servers at the same time.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 21
You implemented FortiGate in transparent mode with 10 different VLAN interfaces in the same forwarding domain. You have defined a policy to allow traffic from any interface to any interface.
Which statement about your implementation is true?
A. FortiGate populates the MAC address table based on destination addresses of frames received from all 10 VLANs.
B. There will be no impact on the STP protocol.
C. All 10 VLANs will become a single broadcast domain for the ARP request.
D. The ARP request will not be forwarded across the different VLANs domains.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A customer wants to implement a RADIUS Single Sign On (RSSO) solution for multiple FortiGate devices. The customer’s network already includes a RADIUS server that can generate the logon and logoff accounting records. However, the
RADIUS server can send those records to only one destination.
What should the customer do to overcome this limitation?
A. Send the RADIUS records to an LDAP server and add the LDAP server to the FortiGate configuration.
B. Send the RADIUS records to an RSSO Collector Agent.
C. Send the RADIUS records to one of the FortiGate devices, which can replicate them to the other FortiGate units.
D. Use the RADIUS accounting proxy feature available in FortiAuthenticator devices.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which two features are supported only by FortiMail but not by FortiGate? (Choose two.)
A. DNSBL
B. built-in MTA
C. end-to-end IBE encryption
D. FortiGuard Antispam
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
A customer wants to install a FortiSandbox device to identify suspicious files received by an e-mail server. All the incoming e-mail traffic to the e-mail server uses the SMTPS protocol.
Which three solutions would be implemented? (Choose three.)
A. FortiGate device in transparent mode sending the suspicious files to the FortiSandbox
B. FortiSandbox in sniffer input mode
C. FortiMail device in gateway mode using the built-in MTA and sending the suspicious files to the FortiSandbox
D. FortiMail device in transparent mode acting as an SMTP proxy sending the suspicious files to the FortiSandbox
E. FortiGate device in NAT mode sending the suspicious files to the FortiSandbox
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
You are hosting Web applications that must be PCI DSS compliant. The Web applications are protected by a FortiWeb. Compliance will be tested during the quarterly security review.
In this scenario, which three FortiWeb features should you use? (Choose three.)
A. Vulnerability Scan
B. Auto-learning
C. Syn Cookie
D. Credit Card Detection
E. the command.
Correct Answer: ACD

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Latest Microsoft 70-980 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( April 2018)# 1-14

QUESTION 1
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenterl and DataCenter2. The two data centers are connected by using a lowlatency highspeed WAN link. Each data center contains multiple HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2. All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center. You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the HyperV hosts. You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single HyperV host fails. Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails. What should you recommend?
A. One failover cluster in DataCenterl and HyperV replicas to DataCenter2
B. One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenterl
C. One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data centers
D. One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data center
70-980 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains a HyperV cluster named Clusterl.
You install Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You create a user account for another administrator named Userl.
You plan to provide Userl with the ability to manage only the virtual machines that Userl creates. You need to identify what must be created before you delegate the required permissions. What should you identify?
A. A service template
B. A Delegated Administrator
C. A cloud
D. A host group
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains four servers on a test network. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

You perform the following tasks:
On Server2, you create an advanced SMB share named Share2A and an applications SMB share named Share2B.
On Server3, you create an advanced SMB share named Share3.
On Server4, you create an applications SMB share named Share4.
You add Server3 and Server4 to a new failover cluster named Clusl. On Clusl, you configure the File Server for general use role, you create a quick SMB share named Share5A, and then you create an applications SMB share named Share5B.
You plan to create a failover cluster of two virtual machines hosted on Serverl. The clustered virtual machines will use shared .vhdx files. You need to recommend a location to store the shared .vhdx files. Where should you recommend placing the virtual hard disk (VHD)?
A. \\Server3\Share3
B. \\Server2\Share2B
C. \\Clusl\Share5B
D. \\Server4\Share4
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. The cluster has Dynamic Optimization enabled. You deploy three highly available virtual machines to the cluster by using System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual
Machine Manager (VMM). You need to prevent Dynamic Optimization from placing any of the three virtual machines in the same node. What should you do?
A. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Compati ility settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines.
B. Set the Priority property of the virtual machine cluster role.
C. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Servicing Windows settings of the virtual machines.
D. From the Virtual Machine Manager console, modify the Availability settings in the Hardware Configuration properties of the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Webl and Web2. Webl and Web2 run Windows Server 20l2. Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin. You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Webl and Web2. You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation. What should you recommend?
A. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Remove both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet.
D. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create two new alias (CNAME) records named Intranet. Map each CNAME record to a Web server name.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office. You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements:
Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office. Minimizes data loss. What should you include in the plan?
A. HyperV replicas
B. Live migration
C. Virtual machine checkpoints
D. System state restores
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application. You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only. You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines. Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines. The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1. Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the User certificate template, and then you modify the
extensions of the copy. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow Enroll
permission to the Authenticated Users group. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The network contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7. Two hundred remote users have laptop computers and only work from home. The network does not provide remote access to users. You need to recommend a monitoring solution to meet the following requirements: Generate a list of updates that are applied successfully to all computers. Minimize the amount of bandwidth used to download updates. An administrator must approve the installation of an update on any client computer. What should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B. Windows InTune
C. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
D. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
E. Microsoft System Center 20l2 Service Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You use Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage 20 HyperV hosts. You deploy a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. You need to automate the remediation of noncompliant HyperV hosts. The solution must minimize the amount of that virtual machines are unavailable. What should you do first?
A. Configure the HyperV hosts to download Windows updates from the WSUS server by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B. Install the WSUS Administrati n console on the VMM server, and then add the WSUS server to the fabric.
C. Install the Virtual Machine Manager console on the WSUS server, and then add the WSUS server to the fabric.
D. Configure the HyperV hosts to download Windows updates from the VMM server by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) deployment. The domain contains 20 HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. Currently, the computer accounts of all of the HyperV hosts are in organizational unit (OU) named Virtualization. You plan to create two private clouds by using VMM named Cloudl and Cloud2. The virtual machines for Cloudl will be hosted on two HyperV hosts named Serverl and Server2. The virtual machines for Cloud2 will be hosted on two HyperV hosts named Server3 and Server4. You need to recommend an administrative model for Cloudl and Cloud2. Which technology best achieves the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Two sites and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
B. Two host groups and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
C. Two OUs and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
D. Two logical units and two Tenant Administrator user roles
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft Exam 70-980 Windows Server:

Published: September 12, 2014
Languages: English, Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE
Exam Code: 70-980
Exam Name: Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 450

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Latest Cisco 200-355 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

QUESTION 240

When a client associates to ExamSSlD, which network address will be assigned?
A. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 10.10.10.0.
B. The IP address assigned will be based on the AP network assignment of 172.16.23.0.
C. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0 address pools.
D. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
E. The IP address will be assigned in a round-robin format based on the 172.16.12.0, 172.16.23.0,192.168.14.0,192.168.25.0 pools.
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 241
Which two services require an RToWLAN design? (Choose two.)
A. wVoIP
B. video conferencing
C. multicast video
D. Telnet
E. SSH
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 242

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a SSID to utilize the management interface on the WLC. The management interface is configured with an untagged VLAN in the wireless controller interface settings. The controller is connected to a neighboring switch via the interface shown in the diagram. Which VLAN will traffic coming from the newly created SSID use to traverse the wired network?
A. 1
B. 20
C. 44
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 243
Drag the propagation behavior on the left to the corresponding environment on the right.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 244
An AP using version 7.0 MR1 broadcasts a Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery message on the local IP subnet. Which step does the AP take next?
A. Determine if the controller responses include the primary controller.
B. Determine if the controller responses include the master controller.
C. Send a discovery request using DHCP option 43.
D. Send a discovery request using DNS.
E. Send a discovery request using locally stored information on the AP.
F. Send a discovery request using OTAP.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 245

QUESTION 246

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 247
If the probability of hot weather, given a hot weather forecast, is 50%, how much would the vendor be willing to pay for the forecast?
A. US $600
B. US $300
C. US $1,000
D. US $500
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the weather is hot and coffee is served, the vendor earns US $1,900. If the vendor knowsthe weather will be hot, she would sell soft drinks and make U $2,500, a US $600 increase. Thus, the vendor should be willing to pay up to U $600 for perfect information regarding hotweather. However, if the forecasts are only 50% accurate, the information is not perfect. Accordingly, the vendor should be willing to pay only U $300 the U $600 potential increasein profits 50%) for the sometimes accurate forecasts.
QUESTION 248
An audit manager has just returned from an executive training program and has suggested that the audit department develop a mathematical model to help identify factors that may be causing changes in the cost of production. According to the manager, the model should recognize that the company currently has three separate production cost) ‘: enters. Which of the following approaches would best provide the analysis suggested by the audit manager?
A. Develop a classical variables sampling estimate of cost of production per department, withthe sample stratified by the dollar value of each product produced.
B. Develop a -gear ratio analysis of the cost of production compared to the cost of rawinventory across the three departments.
C. Develop a multiple regression analysis of production costs, including such variables asraw material inventory costs, number of employees in the department, and overtime pay.
D. Develop a linear regression analysis relating the cost of production to the cost of goodssold.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Regression analysis extends correlation to find an equation for the linear relationship amongvariables. The behavior of a dependent variable, such as cost of production, is explained interms of one or more independent variables for example, raw material costs, employees,overtime). Thus, multiple regression analysis determines functional relationships amongquantitative variables.
QUESTION 249
The following data on variables x and y was collected from June to October:
The correlation coefficient between variables x and is nearest to:
A. 1.00
B. -1.00
C. 0.50
D. 0.00
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A correlation coefficient of -1.00 describes a perfect inverse correlation; that is, theobservations fall exactly along a straight line and the value of one variable increasesdecreases) as the other decreases increases). In the example to the left, the equation of thestraight line is:
QUESTION 250
A company} is formulating its plans for the coming year, including the preparation of its cash budget. Historically, 30% of the company’s sales are cash sales. The remaining 70% are credit sales with the following collection pattern. Sales for the first five months of the coming year are forecast as follows. For the month of April, the total cash receipts from sales and collections on account would be:
A. US $3,729,968
B. US $3,781,600
C. US $4,025,200
D. US $4,408,000
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cash receipts for April equal April’s cash sales US $4,000,000 x 30°l0 = US $1,200,000), 40% of April’s credit sales, and 580/o of March’s credit sales. Consequently,total cash receipts equal US $3,78-1,600 [$1,200,000 + $4,000,000 40°lax 70°/o) +$8,600,000 68°f070%)].A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached tothe bank itself and one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested indetermining the average waiting times of
customers and has developed a model based onrandom numbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and thetime customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bathservice windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached windowattached to the bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. Thelone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, theone at the attached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 251
The problem just described is beast approved by use of which quantitative method?
A. Integrated autoregressive-moving average ARIMA) modeling.
B. Exponential smoothing, multiple parameters.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Linear programming.
200-355 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two basic casts are involved in queuing waiting-line) models: 1) the cast of providingservice including facility casts and operating casts), and 2) the cast of idle resources waitingin line. The latter may be a direct cast if paid employees are waiting, or an opportunity cast inthe case of waiting customers. The objective of the queuing theory is to minimize the totalcast of the system, including bath service and waiting casts, far a given rate of arrivals. Thisminimization occurs at the paint where the cast of waiting is balanced by the cast ofproviding service. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to thebank itself and one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested indetermining the average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based onrandom numbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and thetime customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bathservice windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached windowattached to the bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. Thelone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, theone at the attached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 252
The techniques used in analyzing the problem is best described as:
A. Simultaneously theory.
B. Integrated autoaggressive-moving average ARIMA) modeling.
C. Linear programming
D. Differential calculus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using acomputer. Despite the power of mathematics, many problems cannot be solved by knownanalytical methods because of the behavior of the variables and the complexity of theirinteractions. However, the performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may beinvestigated by randomly selecting values for each of the variables in the model based on theprobability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. If thisprocess is performed a large number of times, the distribution of results from the model willbe obtained. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 253
The process of making sure that the model measures what it is supposed to measure is called:
A. Statistical inference.
B. Hypothesis testing.
C. Confidence coefficient analysis.
D. Validation.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Validation is a step in the simulation procedure. Some assurance is needed that the results ofthe experiment will be realistic. This assurance requires validation of the model — often usinghistorical data. If the model gives results equivalent to what actually happened, the model ishistorically valid. There is still some risk, however, that changes could make the modelinvalid for the future.
QUESTION 254
The marketing department of a company is deciding on the price to charge for a key product. In setting this price, marketing needs to consider the price that a major competitor will charge for a similar product because the competitor’s price will affect the demand for the company’s product. Similarly, in setting its price, the competitor will consider what the company will charge. What is an appropriate mathematical technique for analyzing such a decision?
A. Game theory.
B. Probability theory.
C. Linear programming.
D. Sensitivity analysis.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game or decision) theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confrontedwith an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players andthe algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-person game, if the payoff is given by the loser tothe winner, the algebraic sum is zero and the game is called a zero-sum game. If it is possiblefor both players to profit, however, the game is a positive-sum game. Mathematical modelshave been developed to select optimal strategies for certain simple games.

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Latest Cisco 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#
QUESTION 12
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.

Refer to the exhibits. An administrator needs to perform a factory reset on a C-Series endpoint. What are two valid ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
210-065 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 13
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
210-065 dump Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 15
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
You have replaced an HBA and are trying to add it to an existing zone using the FC switch GUI interface. You are unable to do so. Why is this happening?
A. The OS login has not occurred.
B. The Web login has not occurred.
C. The fabric login has not occurred.
D. The port login has occurred.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
A number of servers are experiencing slower than expected performance. Analyzing the server, switch, and storage logs do not indicate any issues. You have been asked by the customer to address this issue. What will improve performance?
A. Increase the current queue depth setting from 1.
B. Change the frame size from 2148 bytes,
C. Decrease the buffer-to-buffer credits setting.
D. Enable write caching functionality for the device driver.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A company wants to implement a database which requires a storage subsystem with no more than 2 ms write latency and 1 ms read latency. Which type of drive would you use?
A. SATA
B. FC
C. SSD
D. ATA
210-065 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
A colleague asks you if the added cost of using encrypting tape drives and sending the tapes off- site is warranted, since your IT organization already has large security investments such as firewalls and database table encryption. What is your response?
A. The correct firewall rule set would make encrypted tape drives obsolete, but there has not always been strong confidence in the firewall administrators.
B. Encrypted database tables only protect data against inappropriate access by super users such as database or server administrators abusing root privileges.
C. Encrypt tape drives as part of a defense in depth strategy to ensure that one security mechanism being compromised does not expose all information to a malicious user.
D. The existing firewalls and database table encryption do not replace encrypted tape drives, but implementing an intrusion protection system (IPS) will make tape encryption obsolete.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
The latest storage utilization report shows that 80% of the current 500 TB of enterprise storage is allocated. The storage administrator must specify the amount of additional storage needed for local copies for approximately half of the active storage. How much additional storage should the administrator request?
A. 400 TB
B. 300 TB
C. 200 TB
D. 100 TB
210-065 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What is a common protocol used in cloud communications?
A. WebDAV
B. SCP
C. HTTP
D. CDMI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which RAID level is shown?
A. RAID 4
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 6
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
A customer has upgraded all switches in their redundant fabrics during a single maintenance window. Shortly after the upgrades are completed on the core switches, all servers lose access to all SAN attached storage. What would have prevented this scenario?
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Change or risk management
D. Clustered servers
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, what are the two largest risks to a highly available solution? (Choose two.)
A. Only two adapters per controller
B. Only two adapters on the server
C. Only one server
D. Only one switch
210-065 vce Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 27
The storage administrator is required to create five zones within the FC SAN. Which Fibre Channel server would be used to do this?
A. Fabric Login server
B. Name server
C. Management server
D. Fabric Controller
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
You want to visibly verify FC port initialization by reading an analyzer trace. Your objective is to find the frames associated with the initialization protocol to ensure that the FC device is operating correctly during the login process, to be recognized as part of the switched fabric, and appear in a directory of attached FC devices. What must all Fibre Channel devices do to accomplish this?
A. Log in using the Name server.
B. Log in using the Fabric Controller.
C. Log in using the Management server.
D. Log in using the Fabric Login server.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have been hired to consult with storage administrators that are working with zoning and naming convention consistency issues. There are numerous types of zoning methods available using standards that also include aliasing. You want to use a method that guarantees unique global port identification. What accomplishes this goal?
A. WWPN
B. domain_id:port_#
C. Alias
D. Zone set
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Click the Exhibit button.
What is the protocol stack shown in the exhibit?
A. FCoE
B. SCSI
C. InfiniBand
D. Fibre Channel
210-065 dump Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
You have a file system which allows data and metadata segregation. How should you accelerate read I/O on the file system while keeping costs low?
A. Assign the fastest storage to the data portion of the file system.
B. Assign the fastest storage to the metadata portion of the file system.
C. Assign fast storage to the data and the metadata portions of the file system.
D. Keep the file system very small.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
A company has a storage subsystem that supports a variety of replication options. They have purchased an identical array and placed it at a secondary site 50 km away and will provide the shortest RPO. Which statement is correct?
A. Asynchronous replication is the only replication option for distances over 50 km.
B. Synchronous replication is the only replication option for distances over 50 km.
C. Snapshots allow for data to be quickly captured, copied, and mounted from one storage array to another and is the ideal solution for all distances.
D. Synchronous replication will keep the arrays closely synchronized and is ideal for short distances.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Your company’s Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires that no more then one hour’s worth of data be lost in case of a system crash. The data must also be restored within 10 hours. Which two RTO/RPO combinations meet the SLA? (Choose two.)
A. RTO 1 hour, RPO 10 hours
B. RTO 10 hours, RPO 1 hour
C. RTO 9 hours, RPO 1 hour
D. RTO 1 hour, RPO 9 hours
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which backup type is represented?
A. Server-free backup
B. Cloud backup
C. LAN-free backup
D. LAN backup
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which type of a backup changes the archive bit?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Block-level
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
You have a server which is booting from a SAN. After adding new SAN storage to a host, the host will not boot from the SAN. What will resolve this problem?
A. LUN masking
B. Persistent binding
C. Trunking
D. Multiplex binding
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
The CIO would like to segregate management device IP network traffic from server IP network traffic within the data center to limit potential security threats. What would be used to accomplish this?
A. IPsec
B. Firewall
C. VLANs
D. PKI
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You have a new storage array with the following drive types:
1. SAS (6 Gbps)
2. SSD
3. SATA (6 Gbps)
4. FC(4Gbps)
You need to decide which drive type to use based on speed, cost, and drive availability for your Tier 1 storage. Which type of drive would you choose?
A. SSD
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. FC
210-065 dump Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39 Which of the following types of attack always affect the availability of a service?
A. Exception generation attack
B. SQL injection attack C.
XPath injection attack D.
None of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 40 The use of XML schemas for data validation helps avoid several types of data-centric threats.
A. True
B. False
210-065 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 41 The use of session keys and symmetric cryptography results in:
A. Increased performance degradation
B. Increased reliability degradation
C. Reduced message sizes
D. None of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 42 An alternative to using a is to use a .
A. Public key, private key
B. Digital signature, symmetric key
C. Public key, key agreement security session
D. Digital signature, asymmetric key
210-065 vce Answer: C
QUESTION 43 Service A’s logic has been implemented using managed code. An attacker sends an XML bomb to
Service A. As a result, Service A’s memory consumption started increasing at an alarming rate and then decreased back to normal. The service was not affected by this attack and quickly recovered. Which of the following attacks were potentially avoided?
A. XML parser attack
B. Buffer overrun attack
C. Insufficient authorization attack
D. Denial of service
Answer: A,D

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Latest Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated ( January 2018)#

QUESTION 10
What three benefits exist when utilizing Cisco Nexus technology for implementing a unified fabric design? (Choose three.)
A. reduced cabling
B. fewer adapters
C. consolidated switching
D. increased bandwidth
E. enhanced redundancy
F. improved convergence
300-320 exam Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 11
What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?
A. 5
B. 30
C. 60
D. 99
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which multicast address must be available for FHRP advertisements in a multivendor environment?
A. 224.0.0.9
B. 224.0.0.18
C. 224.0.0.102
D. 224.0.0.2
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
An organization is designing the IP allocation of a new site. It currently has 12 separate IP segments. Each segment must be /24, accommodate 25% of growth, and be easily summarized. Which summarized IP block can be subnetted to meet these requirements?
A. /18
B. /19
C. /20
D. /21
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which three virtualization categories are in campus networks? (Choose three.)
A. Layer 2 virtualization
B. Layer 3 clustering
C. network virtualization
D. device virtualization
E. network clustering
F. device clustering
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 15
What data center network layer provides service module integration, Layer 2 domain definitions, and default gateway redundancy?
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. edge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the ROC curve:
As you move along the curve, what changes?
A. The priors in the population
B. The true negative rate in the population
C. The proportion of events in the training data
D. The probability cutoff for scoring
300-320 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is the most appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the sensitivity and specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values. Which statement  and option combination will generate these statistics?
A. Scoredata=valid1 out=roc;
B. Scoredata=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1resp(event= ‘1’) = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1resp(event”1″) = gender region/ out=roc;
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
Which SAS program will divide the original data set into 60% training and 40% validation data sets, stratified by county?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Refer to the lift chart:
At a depth of 0.1, Lift = 3.14. What does this mean?
A. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.
B. Selecting the observations with a response probability of at least 10% should result in 3.14 times more events than a random draw of 10%.
C. Selecting the top 10% of the population scored by the model should result in 3.14 timesgreater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
D. Selecting the observations with a response probability of atleast 10% should result in 3.14times greater accuracy than a random draw of 10%.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the lift chart:
What does the reference line at lift = 1 corresponds to?
A. The predicted lift for the best 50% of validation data cases
B. The predicted lift if the entire population is scored as event cases
C. The predicted lift if none of the population are scored as event cases
D. The predicted lift if 50% of the population are randomly scored as event cases
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Suppose training data are oversampled in the event group to make the number of events and non-events roughly equal. A logistic regression is run and the probabilities are output to a data set NEW and given the variable name PE. A decision rule considered is, “Classify data as an event if probability is greater than 0.5.” Also the data set NEW contains a variable TG that indicates whether there is an event (1=Event, 0= No event). The following SAS program was used.
What does this program calculate?
A. Depth
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Positive predictive value
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit:
The plots represent two models, A and B, being fit to the same two data sets, training and validation. Model A is 90.5% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 75.5% accurate at doing the same on validation data. Model B is 83% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 78.3% accurate at doing the same on the validation data. Which of the two models should be selected and why?
A. Model A. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model B on training data.
B. Model A. It performs better on the boundary for the training data.
C. Model B. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
D. Model B. It is simpler with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
300-320 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Assume a $10 cost for soliciting a non-responder and a $200 profit for soliciting a responder. The logistic regression model gives a probability score named P_R on a SAS data set called VALID. The VALID data set contains the responder variable Pinch, a 1/0 variable coded as 1 for responder. Customers will be solicited when their probability score is more than 0.05. Which SAS program computes the profit for each customer in the data set VALID?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
In order to perform honest assessment on a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between training, validation, and testing data?
A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%
B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%
C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%
D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit:
Based upon the comparative ROC plot for two competing models, which is the champion model and why?
A. Candidate 1, because the area outside the curve is greater
B. Candidate 2, because the area under the curve is greater
C. Candidate 1, because it is closer to the diagonal reference curve
D. Candidate 2, because it shows less over fit than Candidate 1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
300-320 dumps Answer: AC
QUESTION 29 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine. When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently logged in users.
Answer: D
QUESTION 30 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-320 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 31 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E
QUESTION 32 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has  been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
300-320 vce Answer: E
QUESTION 33 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE
QUESTION 34 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections  between a dialup client and a dialup server.
300-320 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 35 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000 network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a DC.
Answer: A

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