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QUESTION 1 What are two advantages of SDN? (Choose two.) A. centralized management B. decentralized management C. programmability D. static networking Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what must have occurred prior to JohnDoe sending the request? A. JohnDoe must have obtained a valid token from Horizon. B. JohnDoe must have successfully authenticated using OpenStack\\’s Web user interface. C. JohnDoe must have obtained a valid token from Keystone. D. JonnDoe must have obtained a valid token from the Contrail control node. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two statements are true about User Visible Entities (UVEs)? (Choose two.) A. UVES are limited to a single component. B. UVEs can span multiple components. C. UVEs may not require aggregation before being presented. D. UVEs may require aggregation before being presented. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail19/topics/task/configuration/analyticsapis-vnc.html
QUESTION 4 What are two supported methods to add a new Contrail compute node using Contrail Command? (Choose two.) A. From the Web UI, add a new server and assign it as a compute node to the existing cluster. B. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the instances.yml file and add the new node information. C. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the command_servers.yml file and add the new node information. D. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the testbed.py file and add the new node information. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail19/topics/task/configuration/adding-newcompute-nodecc.html
QUESTION 8 What are three ways to deploy an MX Series device as an SDN gateway? (Choose three.) A. Configure it as an L4 gateway. B. Configure it as an application gateway. C. Configure it as an SDN-to-SDN gateway. D. Configure it as an L3 gateway. E. Configure it as an L2 gateway. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 9 What are three examples of hypervisors? (Choose three.) A. VMware ESXi B. Juniper vSRX C. KVM D. OpenStack Nova E. Microsoft Hyper-V Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 10 Which statements correct about Contrail security? A. Contrail security is used to control access into Junos devices. B. Contrail security is used to apply security features and segment traffic flows. C. Contrail security is used to analyze network performance and learn traffic patterns. D. Contrail security is used to control management access to VNFs. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two OpenStack components are optional services? (Choose two.) A. Nova B. Heat C. Glance D. Magnum Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12 You decide to create only host routes for each of your virtual networks in a project. Each virtual network is sent its correct host prefix. When troubleshooting inter-VN connectivity, using the ping command, the response times out between two virtual networks even though your policies allow for it. What is the problem in this scenario? A. The VMs do not have interfaces. B. Using host routes prevents the default route from being sent. C. Your VMs have incorrect DNS settings. D. The IPAM settings are incorrect. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which two statements about a Contrail environment are true? (Choose two.) A. Control nodes peer with other control nodes using XMPP. B. Control nodes peer with other control nodes using MP-BGP. C. Control nodes peer with compute nodes using XMPP. D. Control nodes peer with compute nodes using MP-BGP. Correct Answer: BC The control nodes peer with the remote compute nodes by means of XMPP and peer with local gateways by means of MP-eBGP. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail20/information-products/pathwaypages/contrailservice-provider-feature-guide.pdf
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QUESTION 1 Which feature supports sandboxing of zero-day attacks? A. Sky ATP B. SSL proxy C. ALGs D. high availability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You must ensure that all encrypted traffic passing through your SRX device uses strong protocols and ciphers. Which feature should you implement to satisfy this requirement? A. SSL proxy B. AppSecure C. JIMS D. JATP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true about the session shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A. Two security policies are required for bidirectional traffic flow. B. The ALG was enabled by manual configuration. C. The ALG was enabled by default. D. One security policy is required for bidirectional traffic flow. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4 What are two examples of RTOs? (Choose two.) A. IPsec SA entries B. session table entries C. fabric link probes D. control link heartbeats Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5 In an Active/Active chassis cluster deployment, which chassis cluster component is responsible for RG0 traffic? A. the backup routing engine of the primary node B. the master routing engine of the secondary node C. the primary node D. the secondary node Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Your network uses a remote e-mail server that is used to send and receive e-mails for your users. In this scenario, what should you do to protect users from receiving malicious files through e-mail? A. Deploy Sky ATP IMAP e-mail protection B. Deploy Sky ATP MAPI e-mail protection C. Deploy Sky ATP SMTP e-mail protection D. Deploy Sky ATP POP3 e-mail protection Correct Answer: C
You have configured your SRX Series device to receive authentication information from a JIMS server. However, the SRX is not receiving any authentication information. Referring to the exhibit, how would you solve the problem? A. Use the JIMS Administrator user interface to add the SRX device as a client. B. Generate an access token on the SRX device that matches the access token on the JIMS server. C. Update the IP address of the JIMS server D. Change the SRX configuration to connect to the JIMS server using HTTP. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which two statements describe JSA? (Choose two.) A. Security Director must be used to view third-party events rom JSA flow collectors. B. JSA supports events and flows from Junos devices, including third-party devices. C. JSA events must be manually imported into Security Directory using an SSH connection. D. JSA can be used as a log node with Security Director or as a standalone solution. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 You are troubleshooting advanced policy-based routing (APBR). Which two actions should you perform in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. Verify that the APBR profiles are applied to the egress zone. B. Verity inet.0 for correct route leaking. C. Review the APBR statistics for matching rules and route modifications. D. Inspect the application system cache for the application entry. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 The AppQoE module of AppSecure provides which function? A. The AppQoE module provides application-based routing. B. The AppQoE module prioritizes important applications. C. The AppQoE module provides routing, based on network conditions. D. The AppQoE module blocks access to risky applications. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Click the Exhibit button.
The output shown in the exhibit is displayed in which format? A. syslog B. sd-syslog C. binary D. WELF Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two devices are considered to be part of the secure fabric site with Policy Enforcer? (Choose two.) A. Server-2 B. SRX-1 C. Server-1 D. QFX-1 Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1 Which command will silently drop a matching packet? A. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 no-retain B. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 discard C. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 reject D. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 passive Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which statement is correct about the forwarding table? A. The forwarding table is stored only on the PFE. B. The forwarding table contains all known routes. C. The forwarding table is stored on both the RE and PFE. D. The forwarding table is stored only on the RE. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which command would correctly define a router\\’s host-name? A. # set ip host-name B. > set ip host-name C. # set system host-name D. > set system host-name Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which two statements describe PFE functions? (Choose two.) A. The PFE stores a local copy of the Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables. B. The PFE provides access to the CLI and J-Web. C. The PFE stores the master copy of the Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables. D. The PFE implements rate limiting using policers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 You are in configuration mode at the top of the hierarchy. You need to abort the changes that you have made and start again with a fresh copy of the active configuration. Which command should you use to accomplish this task? A. rollback 0 B. load active C. reset config D. clear candidate config Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which CLI mode allows you to make configuration changes? A. enable mode B. configuration mode C. operational mode D. active mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which keystroke is used to auto-complete user-defined variables? A. End B. Spacebar C. Tab CC D. Home Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which statement is true about the longer route-filter match type? A. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than or equal to the given prefix are considered a match. B. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer or equal to the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix length are considered a match. C. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix length are considered a match. D. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix are considered a match. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Referring to the exhibit, you are asked to rate-limit traffic from Web-Server to the subnet where Mal-User is located. All other traffic should be permitted. Which firewall filter configuration do you use? A. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit 100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}} B. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-BAD-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit 100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}} C. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit 100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then reject;}}} D. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit 100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {200.200.200.0/24;}destinationaddress {100.100.100.10/32;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}} Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass- routing. Which statement is correct? A. The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing. B. The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1. C. The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device\\’s interface ge-1/1/0. D. Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100? A. 2 B. 4 C. 9 D. 12 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which two statements describe a routing policy? (Choose two.) A. Attribute changes applied to export policies always affect the local routing table. B. Routing policies are used to choose which routes are sent to neighbors using dynamic routing protocols. C. Active and inactive routes are available for export from the routing table. D. A routing policy allows you to control the flow of information into the routing table. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 Which two types of traffic are processed by the Routing Engine (RE)? A. IP packet with the IP Options field B. time-to-live (TTL) expired messages C. ICMP destination unreachable messages D. OSPF update messages Correct Answer: BC
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Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct? A. This switch has been elected as the root bridge B. This switch has a bridge priority of 32k C. The ge-0/0/15 interface is using the default port cost D. The ge-0/0/9 interface is using the default priority value Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.) A. a stable network topology B. a neighbor configured with BFD C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 What are the three possible port states when using RSTP? (Choose three.) A. forwarding B. learning C. discarding D. listening E. tagging Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address using DHCP. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.) A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device. B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database. C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI. D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which area is reserved for the OSPF backbone? A. Area 0.0.0.0 B. Area 1.1.1.1 C. Area 2.2.2.2 D. Area 3.3.3.3 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, the local router should have an IS-IS adjacency with a neighboring router, but the adjacency never establishes correctly. What should you do to solve the problem? A. Disable level 2 for the interfaces. B. Disable level 1 for the interfaces. C. Disable wide metrics. D. Change the local IS-IS area ID to 49.0002. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct? A. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-flow load-balanced B. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-packet load-balanced C. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-flow load-balanced D. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-packet load-balanced Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 You are adding a new EX4300 member switch to your existing EX4300 Virtual Chassis. However, the new member is not running the same Junos version as the other members. By default, what is the expected behavior in this scenario? A. the Virtual Chassis will transition into a split brain situation between the existing master Routing Engine and the switch running the different version. B. The new switch will automatically pull the correct version from the master Routing Engine and perform the necessary upgrade. C. The new switch will be assigned a member ID and then placed in an inactive state. D. The new switch is not recognized by the Virtual Chassis. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which statement is correct about trunk ports? A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic. B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic. C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned. D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which two sequences correctly describe the processing order of firewall filters on an EX Series switch? (Choose two.) A. router filter > VLAN filter > port filter > transmit packet B. port filter > VLAN filter > router filter > transmit packet C. receive packet > port filter > VLAN filter > router filter D. receive packet > router filter > VLAN filter > port filter Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11 You added a new ESXi host connected to port ge-0/0/1. One of the VMs configured with VLAN 10 is not reachable from any other device on the switch. To troubleshoot, you decide to verify if the VM\\’s MAC address is learned properly under VLAN 10. Which command would you use in this scenario? A. show ethernet-switching table vlan-id 10 B. show interfaces ge-0/0/1 detail C. show vlans 10 D. monitor interface ge-0/0/1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.) A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination. B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed. C. BGP attributes are always optional. D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13 What are two reasons for configuring more than one VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.) A. A group of clients requires that security be applied to traffic entering or exiting the group\\’s devices. B. A group of devices must forward traffic across a WAN. C. A group of devices are connected to the same Layer 3 network. D. A group of clients requires that the group\\’s devices receive less broadcast traffic than they are currently receiving. Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 1 Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)? A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C C. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C D. $FWDIR/conf/table.C Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 On R80.10 the IPS Blade is managed by: A. Threat Protection policy B. Anti-Bot Blade C. Threat Prevention policy D. Layers on Firewall policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. This database is: A. MySQL B. Postgres SQL C. MarisDB D. SOLR Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI? A. mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_ address “10.15.123.10” ?format txt B. mgmt_ cli add host name “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json C. mgmt_ cli add object-host “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json D. mgmt_cli add object “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json Correct Answer: B mgmt_cli add host name “New Host 1” ip-address “192.0.2.1” –format json “–format json” is optional. By default the output is presented in plain text. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/APIs/index.html#cli/addhost~v1.1%20
QUESTION 5 What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled? A. Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer B. SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig C. fwaccel commands can be used in clish D. Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A snapshot delivers a complete Gaia backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz? A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name. B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz. C. As expert user, type the command revert –file MySnapshot.tgz. D. As expert user, type the command snapshot – R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway\\’s external interface. You browse to the Google Website from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0 to exit the network. How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker? A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound B. Only one, outbound C. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection D. Only one, inbound Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\\’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following: 1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server. 2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen: -Allow bi-directional NAT – Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\\’s access? A. Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet. B. No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance. C. Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules. D. No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What happens when the IPS profile is set in Detect-Only Mode for troubleshooting? A. It will generate Geo-Protection traffic B. Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center C. It will not block malicious traffic D. Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control Correct Answer: C It is recommended to enable Detect-Only for Troubleshooting on the profile during the initial installation of IPS. This option overrides any protections that are set to Prevent so that they will not block any traffic. During this time you can analyze the alerts that IPS generate to see how IPS will handle network traffic while avoiding any impact on the flow of traffic. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/12750.htm
QUESTION 11 Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet? A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service. B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24. C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24. D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following configurations will allow this network to access the Internet? A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service. B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24. C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24. D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on the automatic rule. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older? A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence. B. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps. C. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times. D. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub-policy attached to it rather than in the next rule. Correct Answer: D Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f850d1640792cf885336cc6ae8b2743/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1517092603_dd917544d92dccc060e5b25d28a46f79andxtn=.pdf
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community? A. To satellites through center only B. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets C. To center and to other satellites through center D. To center only Correct Answer: AD SmartConsole For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star community in R80 SmartConsole: 1. On the Star Community window, in the: a. Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the “Hub”. b. Satellite Gateways section, select Security Gateways as the “spokes”, or satellites. 2. On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options: a. To center and to other Satellites through center – This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways, for example if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security Gateway with a static IP address. b. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets – This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the Hub to the Internet. 3. Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule. 4. NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the Internet. The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security Gateway with the static IP address. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_VPN/html_frameset.htm
QUESTION 3 Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80? A. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server. B. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients. C. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients. D. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia CLI? A. Blue > add local backup B. ExpertandBlue#add local backing C. Blue > set backup local D. Blue > add backup local Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule Base. A. Firewall drop B. Explicit C. Implicit accept D. Implicit drop E. Implied Correct Answer: E This is the order that rules are enforced: 1. First Implied Rule: You cannot edit or delete this rule and no explicit rules can be placed before it. 2. Explicit Rules: These are rules that you create. 3. Before Last Implied Rules: These implied rules are applied before the last explicit rule. 4. Last Explicit Rule: We recommend that you use the Cleanup rule as the last explicit rule. 5. Last Implied Rules: Implied rules that are configured as Last in Global Properties. 6. Implied Drop Rule: Drops all packets without logging. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm
QUESTION 6 Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats? A. Firewall B. Threat Emulation C. Application Control D. Threat Extraction Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 When should you generate new licenses? A. Before installing contract files. B. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes. C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes. D. Only when the license is upgraded. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk84802
QUESTION 8 Fill in the blank: The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report. A. infoCP B. infoview C. cpinfo D. fw cpinfo Correct Answer: C CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer\\’s machine at the time of execution and uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point servers). The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the indepth analysis of customer\\’s configuration and environment settings. When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and Security Gateways involved in your case. Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk92739
QUESTION 9 On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:
After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by: A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication Correct Answer: B To enable Identity Awareness: 1. Log in to R80 SmartConsole. 2. From the Gateways and Servers view, double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness. 3. On the Network Security tab, select Identity Awareness. The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens. 4. Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets. AD Query – Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identifies Active Directory users and computers. Browser-Based Authentication – Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users. If Transparent Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD users may be identified transparently. Terminal Servers – Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address). Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050
QUESTION 10 Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard? A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset. B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway and type a new activation key. C. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password. D. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing? A. Specific ?derived from a selected object B. Route-based ?derived from gateway routing table C. Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask D. Not-defined Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to: A. a combination of computer groups and network B. users and user groups C. all of above D. remote access clients Correct Answer: C To create an access role: 1. Select Users and Administrators in the Objects Tree. 2. Right-click Access Roles > New Access Role. The Access Role window opens. 3. Enter a Name and Comment (optional) for the access role. 4. In the Networks tab, select one of these: Any network Specific networks – Click the plus sign and select a network. Your selection is shown in the Networks node in the Role Preview pane. 5. In the Users tab, select one of these: Any user All identified users – Includes users identified by a supported authentication method (internal users, AD users or LDAP users). Specific users – Click the plus sign. A window opens. You can search for Active Directory entries or select them from the list. 6. In the Machines tab, select one of these: Any machine All identified machines – Includes machines identified by a supported authentication method (AD). Specific machines – Click the plus sign. You can search for AD entries or select them from the list. 7. Optional: For computers that use Full Identity Agents, from the Machines tab select Enforce IP spoofing protection. 8. Click OK. The access role is added to the Users and Administrators tree. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92705.htm
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QUESTION 2 Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _________________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period. A. Block Port Overflow B. Local Interface Spoofing C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring D. Adaptive Threat Prevention Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What effect would change the parameter of fwha_timer_cpha_res to 5 have on a cluster? A. Change the cluster interface active check to 5 milliseconds B. Change the cphad to send test packets every 5 milliseconds C. Change the sync network timeout to 5 seconds D. Change the failover delay timeout to 500 milliseconds Correct Answer: D Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm
QUESTION 4 The fw monitor output file type is? A. Binary B. ASCII text C. ZIP D. tar.gzip Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of: A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation B. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins D. Making packets appear as if they come an authorized IP address Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which database domain stores URL filtering updates? A. Threat Prevention Domain B. Application Control domain C. IPS Domain D. Check Point Data Domain Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 To display status information, such as the number of connections currently being handled and the peak number of concurrent connections the instance has handled since inception for each kernel instance, which command would you use? A. fw ctl multip stat B. fw ctl affinity –t stat C. fw ctl affinity –s stat D. fw ctl multik stat Correct Answer: D Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm
QUESTION 8 Which of the following file is commonly associated with troubleshooting crashes on a system such as the Security? Gateway? A. core dump B. CPMIL dump C. fw monitor D. tcpdump Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which command query will search the database for instances of the following FW-Corporate object: A. select name from dleobjectderef_data where name = `FW-Corporate\\’; B. select data from dleobjectderef_data where name = `FW-Corporate\\’; C. select object `FW-Corporate\\’ from dleobjectderef_data; D. select name from dleobjectderef_table where name = `FW-Corporate\\’; Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 In order to test ClusterXL failovers which command would you use on one of the ClusterXL nodes to initiate a failover? A. clusterXL_admin down -p B. cluster XL_admin up -p C. cphaprob -d TEST -s ok register D. cphaprob -d TEST -s problem unregister Correct Answer: A Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm#o97358
QUESTION 12 Regarding the Database Domains, which of the following best describes the System Domain? A. The database that contains administrator data, folders, domains, trusted GUI clients, permissions profiles, and management settings. B. The database contains configuration data of log servers and saved queries for applications. C. This domain is used as the Global database for MDSM and contains global objects and policies. D. The database stores user-modified configurations, such as network objects and security policies. In a Multi Domain environment, each domain contains a separate User Domain type. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/products/r80.10-security-management-architectureoverview.pdf
QUESTION 13 To manually configure the number of CoreXL instances running on a gateway, what steps must be taken? A. cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances –exit – Reboot B. cpstop – cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances –exit cpstart C. Uninstall license – cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances – Install license – Exit D. cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances -exit Correct Answer: A
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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 practice test (q1-q13)
QUESTION 1 A business analyst is drafting a risk assessment. Which of the following components should be included in the draft? (Choose two.) A. Asset management B. Database type C. Encryption algorithms D. Certificate name E. Asset inventory F. Data classification Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 2 A developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the company\\’s cloud engineer. Which of the following does this BEST describe? A. Subscription services B. Containerization C. User self-service D. Autonomous environments Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered? A. Time to market B. Operating expenditure fees C. BYOL costs D. Human capital Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A company has a perpetual license for a database application. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective option when moving to the cloud? A. Fixed B. Subscription C. EULA D. BYOL Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following cloud principles will help manage the risk of a network breach? A. Shared responsibility B. Self-service C. Availability D. Elasticity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An online retailer wants to ensure its inventory for the holiday season is correct. The company does not have a large IT infrastructure or staff to collect and analyze sales information, customer analytics, marketing information, or trends. Which of the following cloud services will help the company analyze these metrics without a large investment in human capital? A. Containerization B. Big Data C. Microservices D. Blockchain Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A company wants to migrate mission-critical applications to the cloud. In order for technicians to build, decommission, and perform other routine functions, which of the following cloud characteristics would BEST satisfy this business requirement? A. Self-service B. Elasticity C. Broad network access D. Availability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following BEST describes how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses? A. Acceptance B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Transference Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Transferring all of a customer\\’s on-premises data and virtual machines to an appliance, and then shipping it to a cloud provider is a technique used in a: A. phased migration approach. B. replatforming migration approach. C. rip and replace migration approach. D. lift and shift migration approach. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following are true about the use of machine learning in a cloud environment? (Choose two). A. Specialized machine learning algorithms can be deployed to optimize results for specific scenarios. B. Machine learning can just be hosted in the cloud for managed services. C. Just one type of cloud storage is available in the cloud for machine learning workloads. D. Machine learning can leverage processes in a cloud environment through the use of cloud storage and auto-scaling. E. Machine learning requires a specialized IT team to create the machine learning models from scratch. F. Using machine learning solutions in the cloud removes the data-gathering step from the learning process. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is the cloud storage technology that would allow a company with 12 nearly identical servers to have the SMALLEST storage footprint? A. Capacity on demand B. Compression C. Software-defined storage D. Deduplication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A systems administrator is reviewing a disaster recovery option that requires little to no downtime in the event of a natural disaster. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement? A. Configure availability zones. B. Configure high availability. C. Configure geo-redundancy. D. Configure auto-scaling. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which of the following BEST explains the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use? A. To reduce the amount of data loss that can occur in the event of a server failure B. To ensure the restored server is available and operational within a given window of time C. To ensure the data on the restored server is current within a given window of time D. To reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Examine this output from a debug flow:
Why did the FortiGate drop the packet? A. The next-hop IP address is unreachable. B. It failed the RPF check. C. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY. D. It matched the default implicit firewall policy. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24. The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address. Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10/24? A. 10.200.1.10 B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24 C. 10.200.1.1 D. 10.0.1.254 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 If the Services field is configured in a Virtual IP (VIP), which of the following statements is true when central NAT is used? A. The Services field removes the requirement of creating multiple VIPs for different services. B. The Services field is used when several VIPs need to be bundled into VIP groups. C. The Services field does not allow source NAT and destination NAT to be combined in the same policy. D. The Services field does not allow multiple sources of traffic, to use multiple services, to connect to a single computer. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to? A. A CRL B. A person C. A subordinate CA D. A root CA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal cost multipath (ECMP) routing? (Choose two.) A. Priority B. Metric C. Distance D. Cost Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6 View the exhibit.
Why is the administrator getting the error shown in the exhibit? A. The administrator must first enter the command edit global. B. The administrator admin does not have the privileges required to configure global settings. C. The global settings cannot be configured from the root VDOM context. D. The command config system global does not exist in FortiGate. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does FortiGate take? A. It notifies the administrator by sending an email. B. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file. C. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval. D. It archives the data for that IP address. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 The FSSO collector agent set to advanced access mode for the Windows Active Directory uses which convention? A. LDAP B. Windows C. RSSO D. NTLM Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 An administrator has configured a dialup IPsec VPN with XAuth. Which statement best describes what occurs during this scenario? A. Phase 1 negotiations will skip preshared key exchange. B. Only digital certificates will be accepted as an authentication method in phase 1.C C. Dialup clients must provide a username and password for authentication. D. Dialup clients must provide their local ID during phase 2 negotiations. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user? A. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the LDAP server. B. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication. C. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials. D. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials. Correct Answer: BÂ
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QUESTION 1 Which statements are correct regarding FortiAnalyzer reports? (Choose two) A. FortiAnalyzer provides the ability to create custom reports. B. FortiAnalyzer glows you to schedule reports to run. C. FortiAnalyzer includes pre-defined reports only. D. FortiAnalyzer allows reporting for FortiGate devices only. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result? A. Chart Builder B. Export to Report Chart C. Dataset Library D. Custom View Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 FortiAnalyzer centralizes which functions? (Choose three) A. Network analysis B. Graphical reporting C. Content archiving / data mining D. Vulnerability assessment E. Security log analysis / forensics Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 4 Which statements are true regarding securing communications between FortiAnalyzer and FortiGate with IPsec? (Choose two.) A. Must configure the FortiAnalyzer end of the tunnel only–the FortiGate end is auto-negotiated. B. Must establish an IPsec tunnel ID and pre-shared key. C. IPsec cannot be enabled if SSL is enabled as well. D. IPsec is only enabled through the CLI on FortiAnalyzer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 What can the CLI command # diagnose test application oftpd 3 help you to determine? A. What devices and IP addresses are connecting to FortiAnalyzer B. What logs, if any, are reaching FortiAnalyzer C. What ADOMs are enabled and configured D. What devices are registered and unregistered Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account? A. An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group B. An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges C. An account that requires two-factor authentication D. An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which FortiAnalyzer feature allows you to retrieve the archived logs matching a specific timeframe from another FortiAnalyzer device? A. Log upload B. Indicators of Compromise C. Log forwarding an aggregation mode D. Log fetching Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 How are logs forwarded when FortiAnalyzer is using aggregation mode? A. Logs are forwarded as they are received and content files are uploaded at a scheduled time. B. Logs and content files are stored and uploaded at a scheduled time. C. Logs are forwarded as they are received. D. Logs and content files are forwarded as they are received. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 View the exhibit:
What does the 1000MB maximum for disk utilization refer to? A. The disk quota for the FortiAnalyzer model B. The disk quota for all devices in the ADOM C. The disk quota for each device in the ADOM D. The disk quota for the ADOM type Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 View the Exhibit:
Why is the total quota less than the total system storage? A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used. B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report files. C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet. D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 1 Examine the FortiMail archiving policies shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which of the following statements is true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.) A. Spam email will be exempt from archiving B. Email sent from [email protected] will be archived C. Archived email will be saved in the journal account D. Only the [email protected] account will be able to access the archived email Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Examine the access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) A. Email from any host in the 10.0.1.0/24 subnet can match this rule B. Senders must be authenticated to match this rule C. Email matching this rule will be relayed D. Email must originate from an example.com email address to match this rule Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 Examine the FortiMail IBE users shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below
Which one of the following statements describes the Pre-registered status of the IBE user [email protected]? A. The user was registered by an administrator in anticipation of IBE participation B. The user has completed the IBE registration process but has not yet accessed their IBE email C. The user has received an IBE notification email, but has not accessed the HTTPS URL or attachment yet D. The user account has been de-activated, and the user must register again the next time they receive an IBE email Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Examine the FortiMail topology and access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
An administrator must enforce authentication on FML-1 for all outbound email from the example.com domain. Which of the following settings should be used to configure the access receive rule? (Choose two.) A. The Sender IP/netmask should be set to 10.29.1.0/24 B. The Authentication status should be set to Authenticated C. The Recipient pattern should be set o *@example.com D. The Action should be set to Reject Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6 Examine the FortiMail IBE service configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which of the following statements describes the User inactivity expiry time of 90 days? A. First time IBE users must register to access their email within 90 days of receiving the notification email message B. After initial registration, IBE users can access the secure portal without authenticating again for 90 days C. Registered IBE users have 90 days from the time they receive a notification email message to access their IBE email D. IBE user accounts will expire after 90 days of inactivity, and must register again to access new IBE email message Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Examine the configured routes shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which interface will FortiMail use to forward an email message destined for 10.1.100.252? A. port2 B. port4 C. port3 D. port1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following antispam techniques queries FortiGuard for rating information? (Choose two.) A. URI filter B. IP reputation C. SURBL D. DNSBL Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9 Examine the FortMail mail server settings shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.) A. mx.example.com will enforce SMTPS on all outbound sessions B. mx.example.com will display STARTTLS as one of the supported commands in SMTP sessions C. mx.example.com will accept SMTPS connections D. mx.example.com will drop any inbound plaintext SMTP connection Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 What are the configuration steps to enable DKIM signing for outbound messages on FortiMail? (Choose three.) A. Enable DKIM signing for outgoing messages in a matching session profile B. Publish the public key as a TXT record in a public DNS server C. Enable DKIM check in a matching session profile D. Enable DKIM check in a matching antispam profile E. Generate a public/private key pair in the protected domain configuration Correct Answer: ACE
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VMAX3 Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
EMC Storage Administrator E20-507 Exam Practice Test 1-6
QUESTION 1 Which command enables consistency protection for devices in Concurrent SRDF? A. symrdf enable consistency B. symcfg enable consistency C. symrdf enable D. symcg enable Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company has two VMAX3 arrays installed at two different sites. VMAX3 eNAS is configured on both arrays with IP network connectivity between them. The company wants to replicate file data between the two VMAX3 arrays. Which EMC technology will meet the requirement without additional hardware? A. Replicator B. TimeFinder C. SRDF D. RecoverPoint Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A systems administrator recently installed Unisphere for VMAX and wants to determine the available ports on the VMAX 200K. What should be selected within Unisphere to obtain this information? A. System > Dashboard B. Administration Tasks C. Host > Tasks D. Storage > Tasks and Dashboard Correct Answer: A Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu59483.pdf (p.727)
QUESTION 5 Two RDF groups from two VMAX3 arrays have been added to a Consistency Group. SRDF/A Multi-Session Consistency (MSC) has been enabled for the Consistency Group. The RDF daemon has been started on a single host that has access to both the VMAX3 arrays. What will happen if this host becomes unavailable? A. Cycle switching will stop B. SRDF mode will change to Adaptive Copy Disk C. RDF links will be suspended immediately D. SRDF pair state will become Partitioned Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A storage administrator is using Unisphere for VMAX to provision storage to a virtual machine. This virtual machine needs to share an RDM device that is already presented to another virtual machine. The administrator is unable to select the existing RDM to present to the virtual machine. What could be the cause? A. Volumes already presented as an RDM to other virtual machines are excluded from the available volumes list B. Only available storage from datastores can be presented to virtual machines using Unisphere for VMAX C. No volumes are available and a new volume cannot be created D. Existing volumes can only be presented to physical hosts Correct Answer: A
XtremIO Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects
EMC Technology Architect E20-526 Exam Practice Test 1-6
QUESTION 1 A storage administrator has 20 TB of storage provisioned to their ESXi cluster from a 10 TB XtremIO storage array. The the administrator is concerned about running out of physical capacity on the XtremIO. Which recommendation will assist the administrator? A. Enable VAAI TPSTUN B. Increase the compression ratio on the XtremIO C. Disable VAAI XCOPY D. Thick provisioned eager zero all VM virtual disks Correct Answer: A TPSTUN is a VAAI primitive that enables the array to notify vSphere when a LUN is running out of space due to thin provisioning over-commit. The command causes suspending all virtual machines on that LUN. XtremIO supports this VAAI primitive. Incorrect Answers: C: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include: Clone Blocks/Full Copy/XCOPY Used for copying or migrating data within the same physical array (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedMove). On XtremIO, this allows VM cloning to take place almost instantaneously, without affecting user I/O on active VMs. D: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include: Zero Blocks/Write Same Used for zeroing-out disk regions (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedInit). This feature provides accelerated volume formatting. References: https://itzikr.wordpress.com/2015/12/16/host-configuration-for-vmware-vsphere-on-emc-xtremio/
QUESTION 2 A customer\\’s storage administration team wants to receive e-mail notifications when the XtremIO cluster detects an issue of major seventy. The customer has successfully configured and tested the e-mail server in the XtremIO GUI. However, the e-mail server is not receiving the expected notifications when major severity issues appear. What is the cause of this issue? A. Alert definitions have not been defined B. Event handlers have not been defined C. Public reports have not been defined D. Private reports have not been defined Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An XtremIO administrator is having a problem with performance and is troubleshooting the issue. What is an accurate statement about I/O transfers? A. As I/O size increases, IOPs increase, and latency increases B. As I/O size increases, IOPs decrease, and bandwidth increases C. As I/O size decreases, IOPs increase, and bandwidth increases D. As I/O size decreases, IOPs decrease, and latency increases Correct Answer: A Large block I/O by nature incurs higher latency. References: Introduction to the EMC XtremIO STORAGE ARRAY (April 2015), page 6
QUESTION 4 When creating XtremIO volumes for a host, which operating systems will benefit by changing the default logical block size for applications consisting of 4 KB I/Os? A. Microsoft Windows and RHEL B. VMware ESX and Microsoft Windows C. RHEL and IBM AIX D. Sun Solaris and HP-UX Correct Answer: B With VMware ESX 5.5, the VMware hypervisor cannot work with LUNs that use a logical block size of 4K. When using VMware, be sure to specify Normal (512 LBs) from your XtremIO array. References: https://gruffdba.wordpress.com/2015/08/02/4k-logical-block-size-size-fails-on-vmware/
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to use the Cinder driver to manage XtremIO storage in an OpenStack environment. What is a potential concern? A. Compression is not supported B. Deduplication is not supported C. Snapshots of snapshots are not supported D. Volume expansion cannot be reversed Correct Answer: D Incorrect Answers: B: OpenStack Cinder features include: Clone a volume: With inline deduplication, compression, and thin provisioning. C, D: EMC XtremIO OpenStack Block Storage driver, supported operations: Create, delete, clone, attach, and detach volumes Create and delete volume snapshots Create a volume from a snapshot Copy an image to a volume Copy a volume to an image Extend a volume References: https://docs.openstack.org/juno/config-reference/content/XtremIO-cinder-driver.html https://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h13287-ds-xtremio-openstack.pdf
QUESTION 6 A customer has a group of applications that need storage which can provide low response times. The total I/O requirements are 75,000 IOPs with a 4 KB block size. They will have 500 LUNs and need to keep 30 daily snapshots of each LUN. What is the smallest XtremIO configuration that will meet their needs? A. 1 cluster with 2 X-Bricks B. 1 cluster with 4 X-Bricks C. 2 clusters with 1 X-Brick each D. 2 clusters with 2 X-Bricks each Correct Answer: A
Specialist-System Administrator – RecoverPoint Version 2.0
EMC RecoverPoint E20-575 Exam Practice Test 1-6
QUESTION 1 Which parameter is used as the Locking ID for a RecoverPoint/CL license? A. RecoverPoint Cluster ID B. RecoverPoint System ID C. Array serial number if VNX arrays are used D. VPLEX Cluster-ID if protecting virtual volumes Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/222535?start=0andtstart=0
QUESTION 2 What is the purpose of the save_settings command? A. Create a script file that can later be used to recreate the system configuration B. Modify or configure the RecoverPoint configuration backup interval C. Preserve the configuration of a RecoverPoint Appliance prior to replacement D. Commit cluster configuration changes to the repository volume Correct Answer: A Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/124306?tstart=0
QUESTION 3 A RecoverPoint administrator is planning to use RecoverPoint to protect their applications. The administrator needs to protect 8192 production volumes. The RecoverPoint system has two physical clusters using VNX arrays. What is a possible Consistency Group configuration? A. 4096 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy B. 4096 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy C. 8192 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy D. 8192 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which RecoverPoint CLI command can be used to show a summarization of the errors and warnings for either one site or the entire RecoverPoint system? A. get_rpa_states B. get_events_log C. get_system_status D. get_clusters_topology Correct Answer: B Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/221561
QUESTION 5 A RecoverPoint administrator wants to add volumes from an unlicensed array to a RecoverPoint/EX cluster. Which supported RecoverPoint volume type(s) addresses the administrator\\’s requirement? A. Journal and Copy B. Repository and Journal C. Repository only D. Journal only Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A storage administrator wants to protect their distributed VPLEX volumes using the RecoverPoint, MetroPoint feature. The administrator wants to know if they need to be aware of any special considerations. What information should be provided to the administrator? A. Set the RecoverPoint Group Policy to enable group writes across RPAs B. RecoverPoint does not support replication of distributed VPLEX devices C. All VPLEX devices at both sites can be protected using MetroPoint, regardless of whether they are local or distributed D. Both VPLEX clusters must have a RecoverPoint cluster connected in order to create a MetroPoint Consistency Group Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 1 Which IT Governance principle should cloud services adhere to? A. Asset valuation B. Data classification C. Strategic alignment D. Risk profiling Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 The principles of Autonomy, Abstraction, Discoverability, Composability, and Reusability are all principles of what? A. Application profiling B. Service inventory C. Delivery models D. Service characteristics Correct Answer: B Reference https://www.slideshare.net/MohamedZakarya2/soa-principles-4service-loose-coupling
QUESTION 3 An IT organization has hired you as a cloud architect to assist them in planning for cloud services. Your first goal is to help the IT organization categorize existing services against service characteristics. You have provided a table that shows common service characteristics and their attributes for considerations, benefits, and trade-offs. The following attributes from the table have been identified: Consideration: bundling services increases complexity Benefit: replaceable components, improved recovery from failure Tradeoff: very finite capability What characteristics correspond to the identified attributes? A. Discoverable, Composable, and Idempotent B. Discoverable, Reusable, and Autonomy C. Composable, Loosely Coupled, and Autonomy D. Idempotent, Loosely Coupled, and Reusable Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 In a hypothetical future scenario, a CFO wants the corporation\\’s intelligent lighting system to turn on only when humans are present, as well as change color depending on the time of day and local weather conditions. What emerging 3rd Platform technologies would enable the desired capabilities? A. Big data analytics and augmented humans B. Internet of Things and sensor networks C. Sensor networks and big data analytics D. Augmented humans and Internet of Things Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 An IT organization adopted the ITaaS model to offer services to their business units. They want to assess their readiness for creating and operating cloud services. What would be an appropriate assessment for them to perform related to governance? A. Assess the readiness of the current service catalog B. Determine the cost information needed for charging any service C. Assess the skills of the IT staff to determine training needs D. Assess the compliance needs and requirements for any service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A mobile company has processes in place for service support. One process facilitates collaboration and is a placeholder for functional requests; another process contains metadata on systems, networks, and software. What types of processes are these? A. Configuration Management and Incident Management B. Change Management and Release Management C. Change Management and Incident Management D. Configuration Management and Release Management Correct Answer: D
Just check two points and you will know whether you are ready to take the exam. Follow the official exam syllabus, have you completed it? Check your skills through the EMC E20-507, E20-526, E20-575, E20-920 exam practice test on https://www.pass4itsure.com/emc.html If you are confident, then It means you are ready to take the exam.
