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QUESTION 1

An administrator receives reports about issues with log indexing and text searching regarding an existing Management
Server. In trying to find a solution she wants to check if the process responsible for this feature is running correctly.
What is true about the related process?

A. fwm manages this database after initialization of the ICA
B. cpd needs to be restarted manually to show in the list
C. faced crashes can affect therefore not show in the list
D. solr is a child process of CPM

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Your users have some issues connecting Mobile Access VPN to the gateway. How can you debug the tunnel
establishment?

A. in the file $CVPNDIR/conf/httpd.conf change the line loglevel .. To LogLevel debug and run cvpnrestart
B. run vpn debug truncon
C. run fw ctl zdebug -m sslvpn all
D. in the file $VPNDIR/conf/httpd.conf the line Loglevel .. To LogLevel debug and run VPN restart

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

For TCP connections, when a packet arrives at the Firewall Kernel out of sequence or fragmented, which layer of IPS
corrects this to allow for proper inspection?

A. Passive Streaming Library
B. Protections
C. Protocol Parsers
D. Context Management

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

What does SIM handle?

A. Accelerating packets
B. FW kernel to SXL kernel hand off
C. OPSEC connects to SecureXL
D. Hardware communication to the accelerator

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

John has renewed his NGTX License but he gets an error (contract for Anti-Bot expired). He wants to check the
subscription status on the CLI of the gateway, what command can he use for this?

A. cpstat antimalware -f subscription_status
B. fw monitor license status
C. fwm lic print
D. show license status

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

VPN issues may result from misconfiguration, communication failure, or incompatible default configurations between
peers. Which basic command syntax needs to be used for troubleshooting Site-to-Site VPN issues?

A. VPN debug truncation
B. fw debug truncation
C. cp debug truncation
D. VPN truncation debug

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Some users from your organization have been reported some connection problems with CIFS since this morning. You
suspect an IPS Issue after an automatic IPS update last night. So you want to perform a packet capture on uppercase I
only directly after the IPS module (position 4 in the chain) to check if the packets pass the IPS. What command do you
need to run?

A. fw monitor -ml -pl 5 -e
B. fw monitor -pi 5 -e
C. tcpdump -eni any
D. fw monitor -plasm

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Which command is used to write a kernel debug to a file?

A. fw ctl debug -T -f > debug.txt
B. fw ctl kdebug -T -l > debug.txt
C. fw ctl debug -S -t > debug.txt
D. fw ctl kdebug -T -f > debug.txt

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

In Security Management High Availability, if the primary and secondary management, running the same version of
R80.x, are in a state of ‘Collision’, how can this be resolved?

A. Administrator should manually synchronize the servers using SmartConsole
B. The Collision state does not happen in R80.x as the synchronizing automatically on every publish action
C. Reset the SIC of the secondary management server
D. Run the command ‘fw send synch force’ on the primary server and ‘fw get sync quiet’ on the secondary server

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which is the correct “fw monitor” syntax for creating a capture file for loading it into WireShark?

A. fw monitor -e “accept;” >> Output.cap
B. This cannot be accomplished as it is not supported with R80.10
C. fw monitor -e “accept;” -file Output.cap
D. fw monitor -e “accept;” -o Output.cap

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

When a User process or program suddenly crashes, a core dump is often used to examine the problem. Which
the command is used to enable the core-dumping via GAIA clish?

A. set core-dump enable
B. set core-dump per_process
C. set user-dump enable
D. set core-dump total

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

What is the correct syntax to set all debug flags for Unified policy-related issues?

A. fw ctl debug -m UP all
B. fw ctl debug -m up all
C. fw ctl kdebug -m UP all
D. fw ctl debug -m fw all

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

RAD is initiated when Application Control and URL Filtering blades are active on the Security Gateway. What is the
purpose of the following RAD configuration file $FWDIR/cong/rad_settings.C?

A. This file contains the location information for Application Control and/or URL Filtering entitlements
B. This file contains the information on how the Security Gateway reaches the Security Managers RAD service for
Application Control and URL Filtering
C. This file contains RAD proxy settings
D. This file contains all the hostname settings for the online application detection engine

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1 #

You are designing a QoS scheme for your data center. You must ensure lossless Ethernet. What are three protocols
that would be used in this scenario? (Choose three.)

A. TRILL
B. SPB
C. ITS
D. DCBx
E. PFC

Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 2 #

Click the Exhibit button.

You need to ensure that no single point of failure exists in a new data center that will be deployed. Referring to the
exhibit, which two technologies will accomplish this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual Chassis
B. LLDP
C. MC-LAG
D. LAG

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3 #

You are asked to design a new data center connection where connections between switches will be encrypted for Layer
2 traffic.
In this scenario, which solution will provide the required encryption?

A. SSL
B. TLS
C. IPsec
D. MACsec

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The vSRX is performing micro-segmentation.
B. The vSRX is working in routed mode.
C. The vSRX is not performing micro-segmentation.
D. The vSRX is working in transparent mode.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5 #

Within a customer\’s data center, one departmental server is transmitting all of its network traffic marked with an IP
precedence value of 6. The ingress switch must change this precedence before forwarding it to the rest of the network.
Which CoS feature would be used to accomplish this task?

A. multifield classification
B. rewrite rules
C. class-based forwarding
D. behavior aggregate classification

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6 #

You must implement Layer 4 security services between VMs that are hosted on the same server. You require a low
footprint with Docker support.
In this scenario, which Juniper Networks product would you deploy?

A. vSRX
B. cRPD
C. cSRX
D. QFX

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7 #

Two data centers must be able to operate with a stretched Layer 2 network. You are concerned about unnecessary
traffic on the Data Center Interconnect (DCI). You do not want packets to trombone over the DCI, have excessive
unknown unicast packet flooding over the DCI, or have excessive ARP flooding over the DCI.

Which technology satisfies the requirements in this scenario?

A. EVEN
B. IPsec
C. VPLS
D. GRE over IP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8 #

Which two Junos components does COPD contain? (Choose two.)

A. Kubernetes
B. RIB
C. Kernel
D. MED

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9 #

Which two scripting languages are supported for creating on-box scripts? (Choose two.)

A. Python
B. Chef
C. SLAX
D. Ansible

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10 #

Which two statements about a three-stage Clos IP Fabric architecture are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Each server-facing interface is always two hops away from any other server-facing interfaces.
B. Each leaf node should have a physical connection to every other leaf node.
C. No physical connection exists between spine devices.
D. Each server-facing interface is always one hop away from any other server-facing interfaces.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11 #

Your company is deploying a private cloud based on OpenStack and has selected Contrail Networking as their SDN
controller. The data center supporting this private cloud will use an IP fabric architecture consisting of QFX Series
switches and MX Series routers.

Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. All voters maintain identical forwarding tables for all virtual networks.
B. SDN Gateway devices may contain per-tenant MAC and IP addresses.
C. Each vRouter maintains separate forwarding tables for various virtual networks.
D. Spine and leaf devices may contain per-tenant MAC and IP addresses.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12 #

You are designing a large IP fabric and must determine if you should use IBGP or EBGP to signal your underlay.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. EBGP will require that an IGP is also configured for load balancing.
B. EBGP will require a full mesh on all devices for load balancing.
C. EBGP will require that you include the add-path feature for load balancing.
D. EBGP will require that you include the multipath and multiple-as features for load balancing.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13 #

You are designing an IP fabric ASN scheme using EBGP.
What are two acceptable ranges in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. 0 – 512
B. 100001 – 199999
C. 64512 – 65535
D. 4200000000 – 4294967294

Correct Answer: CD

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The latest Amazon CLF-C01 practice test questions

Are you ready? The small hint test answer is at the end of the article.

QUESTION 1

A company is building a business intelligence solution and wants to use dashboards for reporting purposes.
Which AWS service can be used?

A. Amazon Redshift
B. Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES)
C. Amazon QuicKSight
D. Amazon Althena

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/hands-on/create-business-intelligence-dashboardsusing-amazonquicksight/

QUESTION 2

A security officer wants a list of any potential vulnerabilities in Amazon EC2 security groups.
Which AWS service should the officer use?

A. Amazon GuardDuty
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. AWS Artifact

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/technology/trusted-advisor/best-practice-checklist/

QUESTION 3

What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?

A. Load balancing
B. Automatic failover
C. Round robin
D. Auto Scaling

AWS Auto Scaling monitors your applications and automatically adjusts capacity to maintain steady, predictable
performance at the lowest possible cost. Using AWS Auto Scaling, it\’s easy to set up application scaling for multiple
resources across multiple services in minutes. The service provides a simple, powerful user interface that lets you build
scaling plans for resources including Amazon EC2 instances and Spot Fleets, Amazon ECS tasks, Amazon DynamoDB
tables and indexes, and Amazon Aurora Replicas. AWS Auto Scaling makes scaling simple with recommendations that
allow you to optimize performance, costs, or balance between them. If you\’re already using Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
to dynamically scale your Amazon EC2 instances, you can now combine it with AWS Auto Scaling to scale additional
resources for other AWS services. With AWS Auto Scaling, your applications always have the right resources at the
right time.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/

QUESTION 4

When comparing AWS with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), what costs are included?

A. Data center security
B. Business analysis
C. Project management
D. Operating system administration

Reference: https://www.awstcocalculator.com/Output/Load/f85bbf7e131446643911859504

QUESTION 5

A company wants to migrate a MySQL database to AWS but does not have the budget for Database Administrators to
handle routine tasks including provisioning, patching, and performing backups.
Which AWS service will support this use case?

A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon DocumentDB
D. Amazon ElastiCache

Amazon RDS makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud. It provides cost-efficient
and resizable capacity while automating time-consuming administration tasks, such as hardware provisioning, database setup, patching, and backups. It frees you to focus on your applications, so you can give them the fast performance,
high availability, security, and compatibility that they need.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/part-1-role-of-the-dba-when-moving-to-amazon-rdsresponsibilities/

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is an example of how moving to the AWS Cloud reduces upfront cost?

A. By replacing large variable costs with lower capital investments
B. By replacing large capital investments with lower variable costs
C. By allowing the provisioning of computing and storage at a fixed level to meet peak demand
D. By replacing the repeated scaling of virtual servers with a simpler fixed-scale model

QUESTION 7

What is the value of using third-party software from AWS Marketplace instead of installing third-party software on
Amazon EC2? (Choose two.)

A. Users pay for the software by the hour or month depending on licensing.
B. AWS Marketplace enables the user to launch applications with 1-Click.
C. AWS Marketplace data encryption is managed by a third-party vendor.
D. AWS Marketplace eliminates the need to upgrade to newer software versions.
E. Users can deploy third-party software without testing.

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/partners/aws-marketplace/

QUESTION 8

Which design principles of the AWS Well-Architected Framework help increase reliability? (Select TWO.)

A. Automatically recover from failure
B. Enable traceability.
C. Scale horizontally to increase workload availability.
D. Automate security best practices
E. Keep people away from data

QUESTION 9

Which AWS tool is used to compare the cost of running an application on-premises to running the application in the
AWS Cloud?

A. AWS Trusted Advisor
B. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
C. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator
D. Cost Explorer

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/tco-calculator/

QUESTION 10

Which AWS services may be scaled using AWS Auto Scaling? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon EC2
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon S3
D. Amazon Route 53
E. Amazon Redshift

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/faqs/

QUESTION 11

When should a company consider using Amazon EC2 Spot Instances? (Select TWO )

A. For non-production applications
B. For stateful workloads
C. For applications that cannot have interruptions
D. For fault-tolerant flexible applications
E. For sensitive database applications

QUESTION 12

Which managed AWS service provides real-time guidance on AWS security best practices?

A. AWS X-Ray
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. Amazon CloudWatch
D. AWS Systems Manager

AWS offers premium services such as AWS Trusted Advisor, which provides real-time guidance to help you reduce
cost, increase performance and improve security.
Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/2N40X4PQ

QUESTION 13

Which controls does the customer fully inherit from AWS in the AWS shared responsibility model?

A. Patch management controls
B. Awareness and training controls
C. Physical and environmental controls
D. Configuration management controls

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/wellarchitected/latest/security-pillar/shared-responsibility.html

Publish the answer:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

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Go for a practice test! Juniper Cloud-Associate (JNCIA-Cloud) JN0-211 exam questions Answers

QUESTION 1
In which two scenarios is Contrail used? (Choose two.)
A. private cloud networking
B. network hardware lifecycle management
C. Network Functions Virtualization
D. policy-based routing
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
You are asked to reduce traffic on an MPLS VPN by automatically moving the traffic to an Internet circuit as long as it
satisfies the SLA requirements. In this scenario, what would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Contrail Cloud
B. NorthStar
C. AppFormix
D. Contrail SD-WAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your company has three connections consisting of MPLS, Internet, and wireless connections, respectively. You must
separate traffic according to the type of application sending that traffic across the three links. Which product will facilitate
this requirement?
A. Contrail SD-WAN
B. Contrail Cloud
C. Contrail networking
D. Contrail SD-LAN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two protocols are used in a Contrail system to exchange routing information? (Choose two)
A. XMPP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which protocol is used by the NorthStar Controller to discover existing tunnels in a service provider or large enterprise
WAN?
A. SNMP
B. PCEP
C. REST
D. NETCONF
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about the OpenConfig data model?
A. It supports YANG
B. It provides UDP-based transport
C. It is embedded in all devices that run the Junos OS
D. It uses MySQL as the default database structure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which method does WANDL use to collect live network information?
A. FTP
B. SOAP
C. TFTP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
AppFormix alarm notification are sent to an HTTP server using which format?
A. plain text
B. XML
C. CSV
D. JSON
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which type of tunnels are provisioned by the NorthStar controller?
A. IPsec VPNs
B. VPLs
C. MPLS LSPs
D. GRE over UDP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is an advantage of the Junos Telemetry Interface(JTI) over SNMP?
A. JTI can pull data more frequently
B. JTI always transfers data over HTTP
C. JTI never transfers data over UDP
D. JTI can push data more frequently
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is used to provide secure access to a vSRX in a public cloud?
A. authorized key pairs
B. SSH key pairs
C. private key pairs
D. public key pairs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What are two reasons to use a vMX over a physical MX Series devices in your deployment? (Choose two)
A. A vMX provides more routing features.
B. A vMX accelerates adding new services
C. A vMX has a lower barrier of entry
D. A vMX increases analytic capabilities
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are two major components of the NorthStar Controller system? (Choose two.)
A. PCE
B. PCC
C. CE
D. vPE
Correct Answer: AB

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Juniper JN0-648 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
You are using 802.1X in your access network consisting of EX Series switches. You recently had a failure with your
RADIUS server which resulted in authenticating client devices being denied access to the
network. You want to change this behavior so that authenticating clients are directed to a remediation VLAN.
Which RADIUS server failback setting satisfies this requirement?
A. permit
B. move
C. sustain
D. deny
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You must ensure that all management traffic sourced from your Junos devices is set with a specific DSCP code-point
value.
Which action will accomplish this task?
A. Apply the DSCP code-point to the [edit class-of-service host-outbound-traffic] hierarchy.
B. Apply the DSCP code-point to the [edit class-of-service interface lo0.0] hierarchy
C. Apply the DSCP code-point in an egress policer.
D. Apply the DSCP code-point to a rewrite rule.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button.

You are configuring BGP policies for a site with a dual-homed connection as shown in the exhibit. You need all
outbound traffic to egress the network through the link to ISP B by default. The ISPs should not be able to override this
behavior through BGP attributes.
Which BGP attribute would you modify on the ISP-received routes to accomplish this objective?
A. next-hop
B. origin
C. local preference
D. MED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about OSPF routing policies are correct? (Choose two.)
A. By default, OSPF export policies reject network-summary LSAs.
B. By default, OSPF export policies accept network-summary LSAs.
C. By default, OSPF import policies accept network-summary LSAs.
D. By default, OSPF import policies reject network-summary LSAs.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are configuring BGP policies for a site with a dual-homed connection as shown in the exhibit. You need all
outbound traffic to egress the network through the link to ISP B by default. The ISPs should not be able to override this
behavior through BGP attributes.
Which BGP attribute would you modify on the ISP-received routes to accomplish this objective?
A. next-hop
B. origin
C. local preference
D. MED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, how is R1 learning the route from R2?
A. R2 has an export policy with external type 2 configured.
B. R2 has interface ge-0/0/2 configured as a passive interface under OSPFv3.
C. R2 has interface ge-0/0/2 configured in another area under OSPFv3.
D. R2 has an export policy with external type 1 configured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.

A router is attempting to form an OSPF neighborship with another router. However, the OSPF neighborship fails to
establish completely.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. There is an interface type mismatch.
B. There is an OSPF area mismatch.
C. There is an interface subnet mask mismatch.
D. There is an interface MTU mismatch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about IS-IS levels? (Choose two.)
A. Level 1 systems use a default route to reach AS external routes located in other areas.
B. Level 2 systems must use the loopback address as a part of the ISO network address.
C. Level 1 systems only from adjacencies with other systems that have different area IDs.
D. Level 2 systems do not advertise Level 2 routes into a Level 1 area by default.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You are asked to deploy 802.1X on your EX Series switches. You need to ensure authenticated devices continue to
have access to the network even if the authentication server fails.
Which action meets this configuration objective?
A. Configure the server fail fallback with a value of sustain.
B. Set the reauthentication interval to a value of 0.
C. Configure the static MAC bypass for the authentication server.
D. Set the reauthentication interval to a value of disable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the log shown in the exhibit, what is the problem with the OSPF adjacency establishment?
A. There is an MD5 authentication mismatch.
B. The OSPF database description packet is malformed.
C. The interface IP addresses on the subnet are duplicates.
D. The referenced IP address does not exist on the network segment.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.

You recently implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community
devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?
A. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the vlan-pri VLAN on the AS-2 switch.
B. You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS-1 as the inter-switch link
C. You must configure the ge-0/0/1 interface on both switches as the inter-switch links.
D. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the vlan-pri VLAN on both switches.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. There can be more than one OSPF neighbor on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
B. There can be more than one OSPF neighbor on the ge-0/0/0 interface.
C. There is no need for a DR for the ge-0/0/0 interface.
D. The DR election process is not finished for the ge-0/0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, you must advertise the 100.0.0.0/16 routes from AS1 to AS2, but R2 is not advertising any BGP
routes to R5.
Why is this happening in this scenario?
A. The IBGP routes will not be advertised because you must use a policy to advertise IBGP routes.
B. The IBGP routes are not active and EBGP will advertise only active routes.
C. The IBGP routes will not be advertised because the AS path shows as incomplete.
D. The IBGP routes are not active because the next hop is not reachable.
Correct Answer: B

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Juniper JN0-412 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
What are two advantages of SDN? (Choose two.)
A. centralized management
B. decentralized management
C. programmability
D. static networking
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, what must have occurred prior to JohnDoe sending the request?
A. JohnDoe must have obtained a valid token from Horizon.
B. JohnDoe must have successfully authenticated using OpenStack\\’s Web user interface.
C. JohnDoe must have obtained a valid token from Keystone.
D. JonnDoe must have obtained a valid token from the Contrail control node.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about User Visible Entities (UVEs)? (Choose two.)
A. UVES are limited to a single component.
B. UVEs can span multiple components.
C. UVEs may not require aggregation before being presented.
D. UVEs may require aggregation before being presented.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail19/topics/task/configuration/analyticsapis-vnc.html

QUESTION 4
What are two supported methods to add a new Contrail compute node using Contrail Command? (Choose two.)
A. From the Web UI, add a new server and assign it as a compute node to the existing cluster.
B. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the instances.yml file and add the new node information.
C. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the command_servers.yml file and add the new node
information.
D. From the CLI on the Contrail Command server, edit the testbed.py file and add the new node information.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail19/topics/task/configuration/adding-newcompute-nodecc.html

QUESTION 5
Which command displays routes in vRouter VRF?
A. rt
B. show route
C. show route table vrf-name
D. route print
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail2.21/topics/task/configuration/vrouter-cliutilitiesvnc.html

QUESTION 6
Which type of query is generated by the curl http://:8081/analytics/uves/vrouters command?
A. SSL
B. REST
C. SQL
D. XML
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two nodes are part of the Contrail controller role? (Choose two.)
A. config
B. control
C. analytics
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/nfv2.1/topics/concept/ccpearchitecture.html#:~:text=Contrail%
20controller%20node%2C%20which%20hosts,virtualized%20network %20functions%20(VNFs).
http://juniper.github.io/contrail-vnc/architecture.html

QUESTION 8
What are three ways to deploy an MX Series device as an SDN gateway? (Choose three.)
A. Configure it as an L4 gateway.
B. Configure it as an application gateway.
C. Configure it as an SDN-to-SDN gateway.
D. Configure it as an L3 gateway.
E. Configure it as an L2 gateway.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 9
What are three examples of hypervisors? (Choose three.)
A. VMware ESXi
B. Juniper vSRX
C. KVM
D. OpenStack Nova
E. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
Which statements correct about Contrail security?
A. Contrail security is used to control access into Junos devices.
B. Contrail security is used to apply security features and segment traffic flows.
C. Contrail security is used to analyze network performance and learn traffic patterns.
D. Contrail security is used to control management access to VNFs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two OpenStack components are optional services? (Choose two.)
A. Nova
B. Heat
C. Glance
D. Magnum
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
You decide to create only host routes for each of your virtual networks in a project. Each virtual network is sent its
correct host prefix. When troubleshooting inter-VN connectivity, using the ping command, the response times out
between two virtual networks even though your policies allow for it.
What is the problem in this scenario?
A. The VMs do not have interfaces.
B. Using host routes prevents the default route from being sent.
C. Your VMs have incorrect DNS settings.
D. The IPAM settings are incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about a Contrail environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. Control nodes peer with other control nodes using XMPP.
B. Control nodes peer with other control nodes using MP-BGP.
C. Control nodes peer with compute nodes using XMPP.
D. Control nodes peer with compute nodes using MP-BGP.
Correct Answer: BC
The control nodes peer with the remote compute nodes by means of XMPP and peer with local gateways by means of
MP-eBGP. Reference: https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/contrail20/information-products/pathwaypages/contrailservice-provider-feature-guide.pdf

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Juniper JN0-334 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which feature supports sandboxing of zero-day attacks?
A. Sky ATP
B. SSL proxy
C. ALGs
D. high availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You must ensure that all encrypted traffic passing through your SRX device uses strong protocols and ciphers.
Which feature should you implement to satisfy this requirement?
A. SSL proxy
B. AppSecure
C. JIMS
D. JATP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button.

Which two statements are true about the session shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Two security policies are required for bidirectional traffic flow.
B. The ALG was enabled by manual configuration.
C. The ALG was enabled by default.
D. One security policy is required for bidirectional traffic flow.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
What are two examples of RTOs? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec SA entries
B. session table entries
C. fabric link probes
D. control link heartbeats
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
In an Active/Active chassis cluster deployment, which chassis cluster component is responsible for RG0 traffic?
A. the backup routing engine of the primary node
B. the master routing engine of the secondary node
C. the primary node
D. the secondary node
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network uses a remote e-mail server that is used to send and receive e-mails for your users. In this scenario, what
should you do to protect users from receiving malicious files through e-mail?
A. Deploy Sky ATP IMAP e-mail protection
B. Deploy Sky ATP MAPI e-mail protection
C. Deploy Sky ATP SMTP e-mail protection
D. Deploy Sky ATP POP3 e-mail protection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three features are parts of Juniper Networks’ AppSecure suite? (Choose three.)
A. AppQoE
B. APBR
C. Secure Application Manager
D. AppQoS
E. AppFormix
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/information-products/pathway-pages/security/securityapplicationidentification.pdf

QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button.

You have configured your SRX Series device to receive authentication information from a JIMS server. However, the
SRX is not receiving any authentication information.
Referring to the exhibit, how would you solve the problem?
A. Use the JIMS Administrator user interface to add the SRX device as a client.
B. Generate an access token on the SRX device that matches the access token on the JIMS server.
C. Update the IP address of the JIMS server
D. Change the SRX configuration to connect to the JIMS server using HTTP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe JSA? (Choose two.)
A. Security Director must be used to view third-party events rom JSA flow collectors.
B. JSA supports events and flows from Junos devices, including third-party devices.
C. JSA events must be manually imported into Security Directory using an SSH connection.
D. JSA can be used as a log node with Security Director or as a standalone solution.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting advanced policy-based routing (APBR). Which two actions should you perform in this scenario?
(Choose two.)
A. Verify that the APBR profiles are applied to the egress zone.
B. Verity inet.0 for correct route leaking.
C. Review the APBR statistics for matching rules and route modifications.
D. Inspect the application system cache for the application entry.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
The AppQoE module of AppSecure provides which function?
A. The AppQoE module provides application-based routing.
B. The AppQoE module prioritizes important applications.
C. The AppQoE module provides routing, based on network conditions.
D. The AppQoE module blocks access to risky applications.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.

The output shown in the exhibit is displayed in which format?
A. syslog
B. sd-syslog
C. binary
D. WELF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two devices are considered to be part of the secure fabric site with Policy Enforcer?
(Choose two.)
A. Server-2
B. SRX-1
C. Server-1
D. QFX-1
Correct Answer: BD

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Juniper JN0-103 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which command will silently drop a matching packet?
A. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 no-retain
B. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 discard
C. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 reject
D. set routing-options static route 10.1.1.1/32 passive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct about the forwarding table?
A. The forwarding table is stored only on the PFE.
B. The forwarding table contains all known routes.
C. The forwarding table is stored on both the RE and PFE.
D. The forwarding table is stored only on the RE.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which command would correctly define a router\\’s host-name?
A. # set ip host-name
B. > set ip host-name
C. # set system host-name
D. > set system host-name
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe PFE functions? (Choose two.)
A. The PFE stores a local copy of the Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.
B. The PFE provides access to the CLI and J-Web.
C. The PFE stores the master copy of the Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.
D. The PFE implements rate limiting using policers.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
You are in configuration mode at the top of the hierarchy. You need to abort the changes that you have made and start
again with a fresh copy of the active configuration. Which command should you use to accomplish this task?
A. rollback 0
B. load active
C. reset config
D. clear candidate config
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which CLI mode allows you to make configuration changes?
A. enable mode
B. configuration mode
C. operational mode D. active mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which keystroke is used to auto-complete user-defined variables?
A. End
B. Spacebar
C. Tab CC
D. Home
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the longer route-filter match type?
A. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than or equal to the given prefix are considered a match.
B. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer or equal to the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix
length are considered a match.
C. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix up to a defined acceptable prefix length are
considered a match.
D. All routes within the specified prefix that are longer than the given prefix are considered a match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Referring to the exhibit, you are asked to rate-limit traffic from Web-Server to the subnet where Mal-User is located. All
other traffic should be permitted.
Which firewall filter configuration do you use?
A. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit
100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}}
B. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-BAD-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit
100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}}
C. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit
100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {100.100.100.10/32;}destinationaddress {200.200.200.0/24;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then reject;}}}
D. [edit firewall][email protected]# showpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER {if-exceeding {bandwidth-limit 400k;burstsize-limit
100k;}then discard;}familyinet {filter STOP-MAL-USER {term one {from {source-address {200.200.200.0/24;}destinationaddress {100.100.100.10/32;}}thenpolicer LIMIT-MAL-USER;}term two {then accept;}}}
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass- routing.
Which statement is correct?
A. The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B. The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C. The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device\\’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D. Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe a routing policy? (Choose two.)
A. Attribute changes applied to export policies always affect the local routing table.
B. Routing policies are used to choose which routes are sent to neighbors using dynamic routing protocols.
C. Active and inactive routes are available for export from the routing table.
D. A routing policy allows you to control the flow of information into the routing table.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which two types of traffic are processed by the Routing Engine (RE)?
A. IP packet with the IP Options field
B. time-to-live (TTL) expired messages
C. ICMP destination unreachable messages
D. OSPF update messages
Correct Answer: BC

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Juniper JN0-348 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. This switch has been elected as the root bridge
B. This switch has a bridge priority of 32k
C. The ge-0/0/15 interface is using the default port cost
D. The ge-0/0/9 interface is using the default priority value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.)
A. a stable network topology
B. a neighbor configured with BFD
C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart
D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
What are the three possible port states when using RSTP? (Choose three.)
A. forwarding
B. learning
C. discarding
D. listening
E. tagging
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP
related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address
using DHCP.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device.
B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database.
C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI.
D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which area is reserved for the OSPF backbone?
A. Area 0.0.0.0
B. Area 1.1.1.1
C. Area 2.2.2.2
D. Area 3.3.3.3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, the local router should have an IS-IS adjacency with a neighboring router, but the adjacency
never establishes correctly.
What should you do to solve the problem?
A. Disable level 2 for the interfaces.
B. Disable level 1 for the interfaces.
C. Disable wide metrics.
D. Change the local IS-IS area ID to 49.0002.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-flow load-balanced
B. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-packet load-balanced
C. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-flow load-balanced
D. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-packet load-balanced
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are adding a new EX4300 member switch to your existing EX4300 Virtual Chassis. However, the new member is
not running the same Junos version as the other members.
By default, what is the expected behavior in this scenario?
A. the Virtual Chassis will transition into a split brain situation between the existing master Routing Engine and the
switch running the different version.
B. The new switch will automatically pull the correct version from the master Routing Engine and perform the necessary
upgrade.
C. The new switch will be assigned a member ID and then placed in an inactive state.
D. The new switch is not recognized by the Virtual Chassis.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is correct about trunk ports?
A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic.
B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic.
C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned.
D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two sequences correctly describe the processing order of firewall filters on an EX Series switch? (Choose two.)
A. router filter > VLAN filter > port filter > transmit packet
B. port filter > VLAN filter > router filter > transmit packet
C. receive packet > port filter > VLAN filter > router filter
D. receive packet > router filter > VLAN filter > port filter
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You added a new ESXi host connected to port ge-0/0/1. One of the VMs configured with VLAN 10 is not reachable from
any other device on the switch. To troubleshoot, you decide to verify if the VM\\’s MAC address is learned properly
under VLAN 10.
Which command would you use in this scenario?
A. show ethernet-switching table vlan-id 10
B. show interfaces ge-0/0/1 detail
C. show vlans 10
D. monitor interface ge-0/0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.)
A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination.
B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.
C. BGP attributes are always optional.
D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What are two reasons for configuring more than one VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. A group of clients requires that security be applied to traffic entering or exiting the group\\’s devices.
B. A group of devices must forward traffic across a WAN.
C. A group of devices are connected to the same Layer 3 network.
D. A group of clients requires that the group\\’s devices receive less broadcast traffic than they are currently receiving.
Correct Answer: AD

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CheckPoint 156-915.80 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)?
A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C
C. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C
D. $FWDIR/conf/table.C
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
On R80.10 the IPS Blade is managed by:
A. Threat Protection policy
B. Anti-Bot Blade
C. Threat Prevention policy
D. Layers on Firewall policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. This
database is:
A. MySQL
B. Postgres SQL
C. MarisDB
D. SOLR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?
A. mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_ address “10.15.123.10” ?format txt
B. mgmt_ cli add host name “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
C. mgmt_ cli add object-host “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
D. mgmt_cli add object “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
Correct Answer: B
mgmt_cli add host name “New Host 1” ip-address “192.0.2.1” –format json “–format json” is optional. By default the
output is presented in plain text. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/APIs/index.html#cli/addhost~v1.1%20

QUESTION 5
What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?
A. Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer
B. SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig
C. fwaccel commands can be used in clish
D. Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A snapshot delivers a complete Gaia backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in
/var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz?
A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password
and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.
B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.
C. As expert user, type the command revert –file MySnapshot.tgz.
D. As expert user, type the command snapshot – R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application and URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic
was blocked, what would be the query syntax?
A. blade: application control AND action:block
B. blade; “application control” AND action;block
C. (blade: application control AND action;block)
D. blade: “application control” AND action:block
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914

QUESTION 8
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway\\’s external interface.
You browse to the Google Website from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0
to exit the network.
How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
B. Only one, outbound
C. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
D. Only one, inbound
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific
IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\\’s access for HTTP and
FTP
only, you did the following:
1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.
2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:
-Allow bi-directional NAT
–
Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\\’s access?
A.
Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates
the traffic after accepting the packet.
B.
No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.
C.
Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.
D.
No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on
the interface nearest to the client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What happens when the IPS profile is set in Detect-Only Mode for troubleshooting?
A. It will generate Geo-Protection traffic
B. Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center
C. It will not block malicious traffic
D. Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control
Correct Answer: C
It is recommended to enable Detect-Only for Troubleshooting on the profile during the initial installation of IPS. This
option overrides any protections that are set to Prevent so that they will not block any traffic. During this time you can
analyze the alerts that IPS generate to see how IPS will handle network traffic while avoiding any impact on the flow of
traffic. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/12750.htm

QUESTION 11
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small
network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only
when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following
configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.
B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on
the automatic rule.
Correct Answer: C

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