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Juniper JN0-348 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button.

jn0-348 exam questions-q1

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. This switch has been elected as the root bridge
B. This switch has a bridge priority of 32k
C. The ge-0/0/15 interface is using the default port cost
D. The ge-0/0/9 interface is using the default priority value
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which two requirements must be satisfied before graceful restart will work? (Choose two.)
A. a stable network topology
B. a neighbor configured with BFD
C. a neighbor configured with graceful restart
D. a neighbor with an uptime greater than an hour
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
What are the three possible port states when using RSTP? (Choose three.)
A. forwarding
B. learning
C. discarding
D. listening
E. tagging
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 4
Your network is configured with dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) using the default parameters for all the DHCP and ARP
related configurations. You just added a new device connected to a trunk port and configured it to obtain an IP address
using DHCP.
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The DHCP server assigns the IP addressing information to the new device.
B. DAI validates the ARP packets for the new device against the DHCP snooping database.
C. The ARP request and response packets for the new device will bypass DAI.
D. DHCP snooping adds the DHCP assigned IP address for the new device to its database.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
Which area is reserved for the OSPF backbone?
A. Area 0.0.0.0
B. Area 1.1.1.1
C. Area 2.2.2.2
D. Area 3.3.3.3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.

jn0-348 exam questions-q6

Referring to the exhibit, the local router should have an IS-IS adjacency with a neighboring router, but the adjacency
never establishes correctly.
What should you do to solve the problem?
A. Disable level 2 for the interfaces.
B. Disable level 1 for the interfaces.
C. Disable wide metrics.
D. Change the local IS-IS area ID to 49.0002.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.

jn0-348 exam questions-q7

Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-flow load-balanced
B. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-packet load-balanced
C. 11.0.0.102/32 is being per-flow load-balanced
D. 11.0.0.108/32 is being per-packet load-balanced
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
You are adding a new EX4300 member switch to your existing EX4300 Virtual Chassis. However, the new member is
not running the same Junos version as the other members.
By default, what is the expected behavior in this scenario?
A. the Virtual Chassis will transition into a split brain situation between the existing master Routing Engine and the
switch running the different version.
B. The new switch will automatically pull the correct version from the master Routing Engine and perform the necessary
upgrade.
C. The new switch will be assigned a member ID and then placed in an inactive state.
D. The new switch is not recognized by the Virtual Chassis.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is correct about trunk ports?
A. Trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept VLAN tagged traffic.
B. By default, trunk ports accept only VLAN tagged traffic.
C. By default, a trunk port can have only a single VLAN assigned.
D. trunk ports must have an IRB assigned to accept untagged traffic.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which two sequences correctly describe the processing order of firewall filters on an EX Series switch? (Choose two.)
A. router filter > VLAN filter > port filter > transmit packet
B. port filter > VLAN filter > router filter > transmit packet
C. receive packet > port filter > VLAN filter > router filter
D. receive packet > router filter > VLAN filter > port filter
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You added a new ESXi host connected to port ge-0/0/1. One of the VMs configured with VLAN 10 is not reachable from
any other device on the switch. To troubleshoot, you decide to verify if the VM\\’s MAC address is learned properly
under VLAN 10.
Which command would you use in this scenario?
A. show ethernet-switching table vlan-id 10
B. show interfaces ge-0/0/1 detail
C. show vlans 10
D. monitor interface ge-0/0/1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe BGP attributes? (Choose two.)
A. BGP attributes help determine the best path to a destination.
B. The origin attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.
C. BGP attributes are always optional.
D. The AS path attribute indicates the autonomous systems through which the route has traversed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What are two reasons for configuring more than one VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. A group of clients requires that security be applied to traffic entering or exiting the group\\’s devices.
B. A group of devices must forward traffic across a WAN.
C. A group of devices are connected to the same Layer 3 network.
D. A group of clients requires that the group\\’s devices receive less broadcast traffic than they are currently receiving.
Correct Answer: AD

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CheckPoint 156-915.80 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)?
A. $FWDIR/conf/classes.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/scheam.C
C. $FWDIR/conf/fields.C
D. $FWDIR/conf/table.C
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
On R80.10 the IPS Blade is managed by:
A. Threat Protection policy
B. Anti-Bot Blade
C. Threat Prevention policy
D. Layers on Firewall policy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. This
database is:
A. MySQL
B. Postgres SQL
C. MarisDB
D. SOLR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?
A. mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_ address “10.15.123.10” ?format txt
B. mgmt_ cli add host name “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
C. mgmt_ cli add object-host “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
D. mgmt_cli add object “Server_ 1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” ?format json
Correct Answer: B
mgmt_cli add host name “New Host 1” ip-address “192.0.2.1” –format json “–format json” is optional. By default the
output is presented in plain text. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/latest/APIs/index.html#cli/addhost~v1.1%20


QUESTION 5
What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?
A. Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer
B. SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig
C. fwaccel commands can be used in clish
D. Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A snapshot delivers a complete Gaia backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in
/var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz?
A. Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password
and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.
B. As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.
C. As expert user, type the command revert –file MySnapshot.tgz.
D. As expert user, type the command snapshot – R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
To find records in the logs that shows log records from the Application and URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic
was blocked, what would be the query syntax?
A. blade: application control AND action:block
B. blade; “application control” AND action;block
C. (blade: application control AND action;block)
D. blade: “application control” AND action:block
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_LoggingAndMonitoring/131914


QUESTION 8
You enable Hide NAT on the network object, 10.1.1.0 behind the Security Gateway\\’s external interface.
You browse to the Google Website from host, 10.1.1.10 successfully. You enable a log on the rule that allows 10.1.1.0
to exit the network.
How many log entries do you see for that connection in SmartView Tracker?
A. Two, one for outbound, one for inbound
B. Only one, outbound
C. Two, both outbound, one for the real IP connection and one for the NAT IP connection
D. Only one, inbound
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific
IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner\\’s access for HTTP and
FTP
only, you did the following:
1) Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.
2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:
-Allow bi-directional NAT

Translate destination on client side Do the above settings limit the partner\\’s access?
A.
Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates
the traffic after accepting the packet.
B.
No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.
C.
Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.
D.
No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on
the interface nearest to the client.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
What happens when the IPS profile is set in Detect-Only Mode for troubleshooting?
A. It will generate Geo-Protection traffic
B. Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center
C. It will not block malicious traffic
D. Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control
Correct Answer: C
It is recommended to enable Detect-Only for Troubleshooting on the profile during the initial installation of IPS. This
option overrides any protections that are set to Prevent so that they will not block any traffic. During this time you can
analyze the alerts that IPS generate to see how IPS will handle network traffic while avoiding any impact on the flow of
traffic. Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_IPS_AdminGuide/12750.htm

QUESTION 11
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small
network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only
when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following
configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.
B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on
the automatic rule.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your main internal network 10.10.10.0/24 allows all traffic to the Internet using Hide NAT. You also have a small
network 10.10.20.0/24 behind the internal router. You want to configure the kernel to translate the source address only
when network 10.10.20.0 tries to access the Internet for HTTP, SMTP, and FTP services. Which of the following
configurations will allow this network to access the Internet?
A. Configure three Manual Static NAT rules for network 10.10.20.0/24, one for each service.
B. Configure Automatic Static NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24.
C. Configure one Manual Hide NAT rule for HTTP, FTP, and SMTP services for network 10.10.20.0/24.
D. Configure Automatic Hide NAT on network 10.10.20.0/24 and then edit the Service column in the NAT Rule Base on
the automatic rule.
Correct Answer: C

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CheckPoint 156-215.80 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?
A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in
which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
B. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
C. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
D. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will
continue in the sub-policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://dl3.checkpoint.com/paid/1f/1f850d1640792cf885336cc6ae8b2743/CP_R80_ReleaseNotes.pdf?HashKey=1517092603_dd917544d92dccc060e5b25d28a46f79andxtn=.pdf


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
A. To satellites through center only
B. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
C. To center and to other satellites through center
D. To center only
Correct Answer: AD
SmartConsole
For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star community in R80
SmartConsole:
1. On the Star Community window, in the:
a.
Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the “Hub”.
b.
Satellite Gateways section, select Security Gateways as the “spokes”, or satellites.
2. On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options:
a.
To center and to other Satellites through center – This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways, for example
if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security Gateway with a static IP
address.
b.
To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets – This allows connectivity between
the Security Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the Hub to the Internet.
3.
Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule.
4.
NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the Internet.
The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security Gateway
with the static IP address.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_VPN/html_frameset.htm

QUESTION 3
Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients in R80?
A. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.
B. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.
C. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in
SmartConsole: Manage and Settings>Permissions and Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients.
D. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings>Permissions and
Administrators>Advanced>Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia
CLI?
A. Blue > add local backup
B. ExpertandBlue#add local backing
C. Blue > set backup local
D. Blue > add backup local
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the
Rule Base.
A. Firewall drop
B. Explicit
C. Implicit accept
D. Implicit drop
E. Implied
Correct Answer: E
This is the order that rules are enforced:
1.
First Implied Rule: You cannot edit or delete this rule and no explicit rules can be placed before it.
2.
Explicit Rules: These are rules that you create.
3.
Before Last Implied Rules: These implied rules are applied before the last explicit rule.
4.
Last Explicit Rule: We recommend that you use the Cleanup rule as the last explicit rule.
5.
Last Implied Rules: Implied rules that are configured as Last in Global Properties.
6.
Implied Drop Rule: Drops all packets without logging.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92703.htm

QUESTION 6
Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?
A. Firewall
B. Threat Emulation
C. Application Control
D. Threat Extraction
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Before installing contract files.
B. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk84802

QUESTION 8
Fill in the blank: The tool _______ generates a R80 Security Gateway configuration report.
A. infoCP
B. infoview
C. cpinfo
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: C
CPInfo is an auto-updatable utility that collects diagnostics data on a customer\\’s machine at the time of execution and
uploads it to Check Point servers (it replaces the standalone cp_uploader utility for uploading files to Check Point
servers).
The CPinfo output file allows analyzing customer setups from a remote location. Check Point support engineers can
open the CPinfo file in a demo mode, while viewing actual customer Security Policies and Objects. This allows the indepth
analysis of customer\\’s configuration and environment settings.
When contacting Check Point Support, collect the cpinfo files from the Security Management server and Security
Gateways involved in your case. Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=andsolutionid=sk92739

QUESTION 9
On the following picture an administrator configures Identity Awareness:

156-215.80 exam questions-q9

After clicking “Next” the above configuration is supported by:
A. Kerberos SSO which will be working for Active Directory integration
B. Based on Active Directory integration which allows the Security Gateway to correlate Active Directory users and
machines to IP addresses in a method that is completely transparent to the user
C. Obligatory usage of Captive Portal
D. The ports 443 or 80 what will be used by Browser-Based and configured Authentication
Correct Answer: B
To enable Identity Awareness:
1.
Log in to R80 SmartConsole.
2.
From the Gateways and Servers view, double-click the Security Gateway on which to enable Identity Awareness.
3.
On the Network Security tab, select Identity Awareness. The Identity Awareness Configuration wizard opens.
4.
Select one or more options. These options set the methods for acquiring identities of managed and unmanaged assets.
AD Query – Lets the Security Gateway seamlessly identifies Active Directory users and computers.
Browser-Based Authentication – Sends users to a Web page to acquire identities from unidentified users. If Transparent
Kerberos Authentication is configured, AD users may be identified transparently.
Terminal Servers – Identify users in a Terminal Server environment (originating from one IP address).
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80BC_IdentityAwareness/62050


QUESTION 10
Which of the below is the MOST correct process to reset SIC from SmartDashboard?
A. Run cpconfig, and click Reset.
B. Click the Communication button for the firewall object, then click Reset. Run cpconfig on the gateway and type a new
activation key.
C. Run cpconfig, and select Secure Internal Communication > Change One Time Password.
D. Click Communication > Reset on the Gateway object, and type a new activation key.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?
A. cphaprob state
B. cphaprob status
C. cphaprob
D. cluster state
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm


QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?
A. Specific ?derived from a selected object
B. Route-based ?derived from gateway routing table
C. Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask
D. Not-defined
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:
A. a combination of computer groups and network
B. users and user groups
C. all of above
D. remote access clients
Correct Answer: C
To create an access role:
1.
Select Users and Administrators in the Objects Tree.
2.
Right-click Access Roles > New Access Role.
The Access Role window opens.
3.
Enter a Name and Comment (optional) for the access role.
4.
In the Networks tab, select one of these:
Any network
Specific networks – Click the plus sign and select a network.
Your selection is shown in the Networks node in the Role Preview pane.
5.
In the Users tab, select one of these:
Any user
All identified users – Includes users identified by a supported authentication method (internal users, AD users or LDAP
users).
Specific users – Click the plus sign.
A window opens. You can search for Active Directory entries or select them from the list.
6.
In the Machines tab, select one of these:
Any machine
All identified machines – Includes machines identified by a supported authentication method (AD).
Specific machines – Click the plus sign.
You can search for AD entries or select them from the list.
7.
Optional: For computers that use Full Identity Agents, from the Machines tab select Enforce IP spoofing protection.
8.
Click OK.
The access role is added to the Users and Administrators tree.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Firewall_WebAdmin/92705.htm

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CheckPoint 156-115.80 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
You need to investigate issues with policy installation on the Security Gateway side. Which process will you debug and
how?
A. cpd; cpd_admin debug on TDERROR_ALL_ALL=5
B. cpd; fw ctl debug on –m cpd
C. fwm; fw debug fwm on TDERROR_ALL_ALL=5
D. fwd; fw debug fwd on TDERROR_ALL_ALL=5
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/11844/FILE/How-ToTroubleshoot-PolicyInstallation-Issues.pdf

QUESTION 2
Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _________________ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time
period.
A. Block Port Overflow
B. Local Interface Spoofing
C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
D. Adaptive Threat Prevention
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What effect would change the parameter of fwha_timer_cpha_res to 5 have on a cluster?
A. Change the cluster interface active check to 5 milliseconds
B. Change the cphad to send test packets every 5 milliseconds
C. Change the sync network timeout to 5 seconds
D. Change the failover delay timeout to 500 milliseconds
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm

QUESTION 4
The fw monitor output file type is?
A. Binary
B. ASCII text
C. ZIP
D. tar.gzip
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
In R80 spoofing is defined as a method of:
A. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation
B. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users
C. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins D. Making packets appear as if they come an authorized
IP address
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which database domain stores URL filtering updates?
A. Threat Prevention Domain
B. Application Control domain
C. IPS Domain
D. Check Point Data Domain
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
To display status information, such as the number of connections currently being handled and the peak number of
concurrent connections the instance has handled since inception for each kernel instance, which command would you
use?
A. fw ctl multip stat
B. fw ctl affinity –t stat
C. fw ctl affinity –s stat
D. fw ctl multik stat
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_PerformanceTuning_WebAdmin/6731.htm


QUESTION 8
Which of the following file is commonly associated with troubleshooting crashes on a system such as the Security?
Gateway?
A. core dump
B. CPMIL dump
C. fw monitor
D. tcpdump
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
What is the correct command to turn off an IKE debug?
A. vpn debug ikeoff
B. fw ctl debug ikeoff
C. vpn debug ikeoff 0
D. fw ctl vpn debug ikeoff
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.checkpoint.com/docs/DOC-3023-vpn-troubleshooting-commands

QUESTION 10
Which command query will search the database for instances of the following FW-Corporate object:
A. select name from dleobjectderef_data where name = `FW-Corporate\\’;
B. select data from dleobjectderef_data where name = `FW-Corporate\\’;
C. select object `FW-Corporate\\’ from dleobjectderef_data;
D. select name from dleobjectderef_table where name = `FW-Corporate\\’;
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
In order to test ClusterXL failovers which command would you use on one of the ClusterXL nodes to initiate a failover?
A. clusterXL_admin down -p
B. cluster XL_admin up -p
C. cphaprob -d TEST -s ok register
D. cphaprob -d TEST -s problem unregister
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/7298.htm#o97358


QUESTION 12
Regarding the Database Domains, which of the following best describes the System Domain?
A. The database that contains administrator data, folders, domains, trusted GUI clients, permissions profiles, and
management settings.
B. The database contains configuration data of log servers and saved queries for applications.
C. This domain is used as the Global database for MDSM and contains global objects and policies.
D. The database stores user-modified configurations, such as network objects and security policies. In a Multi Domain
environment, each domain contains a separate User Domain type.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.checkpoint.com/downloads/products/r80.10-security-management-architectureoverview.pdf

QUESTION 13
To manually configure the number of CoreXL instances running on a gateway, what steps must be taken?
A. cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances –exit – Reboot
B. cpstop – cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances –exit cpstart
C. Uninstall license – cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances – Install
license – Exit
D. cpconfig – Configure Check Point CoreXL – Choose the number of firewall instances -exit
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
A business analyst is drafting a risk assessment.
Which of the following components should be included in the draft? (Choose two.)
A. Asset management
B. Database type
C. Encryption algorithms
D. Certificate name
E. Asset inventory
F. Data classification
Correct Answer: AF


QUESTION 2
A developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the
company\\’s cloud engineer.
Which of the following does this BEST describe?
A. Subscription services
B. Containerization
C. User self-service
D. Autonomous environments
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes
fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered?
A. Time to market
B. Operating expenditure fees
C. BYOL costs
D. Human capital
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company has a perpetual license for a database application. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective option
when moving to the cloud?
A. Fixed
B. Subscription
C. EULA
D. BYOL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which of the following cloud principles will help manage the risk of a network breach?
A. Shared responsibility
B. Self-service
C. Availability
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
An online retailer wants to ensure its inventory for the holiday season is correct. The company does not have a large IT
infrastructure or staff to collect and analyze sales information, customer analytics, marketing information, or trends.
Which of the following cloud services will help the company analyze these metrics without a large investment in human
capital?
A. Containerization
B. Big Data
C. Microservices
D. Blockchain
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A company wants to migrate mission-critical applications to the cloud. In order for technicians to build, decommission, and perform other routine functions, which of the following cloud characteristics would BEST satisfy this business
requirement?
A. Self-service
B. Elasticity
C. Broad network access
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Avoidance
D. Transference
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Transferring all of a customer\\’s on-premises data and virtual machines to an appliance, and then shipping it to a cloud
provider is a technique used in a:
A. phased migration approach.
B. replatforming migration approach.
C. rip and replace migration approach.
D. lift and shift migration approach.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which of the following are true about the use of machine learning in a cloud environment? (Choose two).
A. Specialized machine learning algorithms can be deployed to optimize results for specific scenarios.
B. Machine learning can just be hosted in the cloud for managed services.
C. Just one type of cloud storage is available in the cloud for machine learning workloads.
D. Machine learning can leverage processes in a cloud environment through the use of cloud storage and auto-scaling.
E. Machine learning requires a specialized IT team to create the machine learning models from scratch.
F. Using machine learning solutions in the cloud removes the data-gathering step from the learning process.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the cloud storage technology that would allow a company with 12 nearly identical servers to
have the SMALLEST storage footprint?
A. Capacity on demand
B. Compression
C. Software-defined storage
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A systems administrator is reviewing a disaster recovery option that requires little to no downtime in the event of a
natural disaster.
Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure availability zones.
B. Configure high availability.
C. Configure geo-redundancy.
D. Configure auto-scaling.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following BEST explains the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use?
A. To reduce the amount of data loss that can occur in the event of a server failure
B. To ensure the restored server is available and operational within a given window of time
C. To ensure the data on the restored server is current within a given window of time
D. To reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline
Correct Answer: B

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Fortinet NSE 4 - FortiOS 6.2

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Fortinet NSE4 NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Examine this output from a debug flow:

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q1

Why did the FortiGate drop the packet?
A. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.
B. It failed the RPF check.
C. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.
D. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q2

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address
10.0.1.254/24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is configured with
a VIP as the destination address.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address
10.0.1.10/24?
A. 10.200.1.10
B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24
C. 10.200.1.1
D. 10.0.1.254
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
If the Services field is configured in a Virtual IP (VIP), which of the following statements is true when central NAT is
used?
A. The Services field removes the requirement of creating multiple VIPs for different services.
B. The Services field is used when several VIPs need to be bundled into VIP groups.
C. The Services field does not allow source NAT and destination NAT to be combined in the same policy.
D. The Services field does not allow multiple sources of traffic, to use multiple services, to connect to a single
computer.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to?
A. A CRL
B. A person
C. A subordinate CA
D. A root CA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal cost multipath (ECMP)
routing? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Metric
C. Distance
D. Cost
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
View the exhibit.

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q6

Why is the administrator getting the error shown in the exhibit?
A. The administrator must first enter the command edit global.
B. The administrator admin does not have the privileges required to configure global settings.
C. The global settings cannot be configured from the root VDOM context.
D. The command config system global does not exist in FortiGate.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does FortiGate take?
A. It notifies the administrator by sending an email.
B. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file.
C. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval.
D. It archives the data for that IP address.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
The FSSO collector agent set to advanced access mode for the Windows Active Directory uses which convention?
A. LDAP
B. Windows
C. RSSO
D. NTLM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator has configured a dialup IPsec VPN with XAuth. Which statement best describes what occurs during
this scenario?
A. Phase 1 negotiations will skip preshared key exchange.
B. Only digital certificates will be accepted as an authentication method in phase 1.C
C. Dialup clients must provide a username and password for authentication.
D. Dialup clients must provide their local ID during phase 2 negotiations.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user?
A. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the
LDAP server.
B. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication.
C. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials.
D. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials.
Correct Answer: B
 

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Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2

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Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Which statements are correct regarding FortiAnalyzer reports? (Choose two)
A. FortiAnalyzer provides the ability to create custom reports.
B. FortiAnalyzer glows you to schedule reports to run.
C. FortiAnalyzer includes pre-defined reports only.
D. FortiAnalyzer allows reporting for FortiGate devices only.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?
A. Chart Builder
B. Export to Report Chart
C. Dataset Library
D. Custom View
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
FortiAnalyzer centralizes which functions? (Choose three)
A. Network analysis
B. Graphical reporting
C. Content archiving / data mining
D. Vulnerability assessment
E. Security log analysis / forensics
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding securing communications between FortiAnalyzer and FortiGate with IPsec?
(Choose two.)
A. Must configure the FortiAnalyzer end of the tunnel only–the FortiGate end is auto-negotiated.
B. Must establish an IPsec tunnel ID and pre-shared key.
C. IPsec cannot be enabled if SSL is enabled as well.
D. IPsec is only enabled through the CLI on FortiAnalyzer.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What can the CLI command # diagnose test application oftpd 3 help you to determine?
A. What devices and IP addresses are connecting to FortiAnalyzer
B. What logs, if any, are reaching FortiAnalyzer
C. What ADOMs are enabled and configured
D. What devices are registered and unregistered
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account?
A. An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group
B. An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges
C. An account that requires two-factor authentication
D. An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which FortiAnalyzer feature allows you to retrieve the archived logs matching a specific timeframe from another
FortiAnalyzer device?
A. Log upload
B. Indicators of Compromise
C. Log forwarding an aggregation mode
D. Log fetching
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
How are logs forwarded when FortiAnalyzer is using aggregation mode?
A. Logs are forwarded as they are received and content files are uploaded at a scheduled time.
B. Logs and content files are stored and uploaded at a scheduled time.
C. Logs are forwarded as they are received.
D. Logs and content files are forwarded as they are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
View the exhibit:

Janintraining NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam questions-q9

What does the 1000MB maximum for disk utilization refer to?
A. The disk quota for the FortiAnalyzer model
B. The disk quota for all devices in the ADOM
C. The disk quota for each device in the ADOM
D. The disk quota for the ADOM type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit:

Janintraining NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam questions-q10

Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?
A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used.
B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report
files.
C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet.
D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota.
Correct Answer: B

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NSE 6 Network Security Specialist

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Fortinet NSE6_FML-6.0 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Examine the FortiMail archiving policies shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q1

Which of the following statements is true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spam email will be exempt from archiving
B. Email sent from [email protected] will be archived
C. Archived email will be saved in the journal account
D. Only the [email protected] account will be able to access the archived email
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Examine the access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q2

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Email from any host in the 10.0.1.0/24 subnet can match this rule
B. Senders must be authenticated to match this rule
C. Email matching this rule will be relayed
D. Email must originate from an example.com email address to match this rule
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
FortiMail is configured with the protected domain “example.com”. Identify which of the following envelope addresses will
require an access receive rule to relay for unauthenticated senders? (Choose two.)
A. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
B. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
C. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
D. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 4
Examine the FortiMail IBE users shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q4

Which one of the following statements describes the Pre-registered status of the IBE user [email protected]?
A. The user was registered by an administrator in anticipation of IBE participation
B. The user has completed the IBE registration process but has not yet accessed their IBE email
C. The user has received an IBE notification email, but has not accessed the HTTPS URL or attachment yet
D. The user account has been de-activated, and the user must register again the next time they receive an IBE email
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Examine the FortiMail topology and access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q5

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q5-2

An administrator must enforce authentication on FML-1 for all outbound email from the example.com domain. Which of
the following settings should be used to configure the access receive rule? (Choose two.)
A. The Sender IP/netmask should be set to 10.29.1.0/24
B. The Authentication status should be set to Authenticated
C. The Recipient pattern should be set o *@example.com
D. The Action should be set to Reject
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Examine the FortiMail IBE service configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q6

Which of the following statements describes the User inactivity expiry time of 90 days?
A. First time IBE users must register to access their email within 90 days of receiving the notification email message
B. After initial registration, IBE users can access the secure portal without authenticating again for 90 days
C. Registered IBE users have 90 days from the time they receive a notification email message to access their IBE
email
D. IBE user accounts will expire after 90 days of inactivity, and must register again to access new IBE email message
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Examine the configured routes shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q7

Which interface will FortiMail use to forward an email message destined for 10.1.100.252?
A. port2
B. port4
C. port3
D. port1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following antispam techniques queries FortiGuard for rating information? (Choose two.)
A. URI filter
B. IP reputation
C. SURBL
D. DNSBL
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
Examine the FortMail mail server settings shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q9

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. mx.example.com will enforce SMTPS on all outbound sessions
B. mx.example.com will display STARTTLS as one of the supported commands in SMTP sessions
C. mx.example.com will accept SMTPS connections
D. mx.example.com will drop any inbound plaintext SMTP connection
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What are the configuration steps to enable DKIM signing for outbound messages on FortiMail? (Choose three.)
A. Enable DKIM signing for outgoing messages in a matching session profile
B. Publish the public key as a TXT record in a public DNS server
C. Enable DKIM check in a matching session profile
D. Enable DKIM check in a matching antispam profile
E. Generate a public/private key pair in the protected domain configuration
Correct Answer: ACE

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VMAX3 Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators

EMC Storage Administrator E20-507 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
Which command enables consistency protection for devices in Concurrent SRDF?
A. symrdf enable consistency
B. symcfg enable consistency
C. symrdf enable
D. symcg enable
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which Database Management System(s) is used by Unisphere for VMAX v.8.3?
A. PostgreSQL and MySQL B. Oracle
C. PostgreSQL only
D. MySQL only
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://learningcontent.emc.com/gatekeepercontent/cninv000000000124493/presentation_content/external_fi
les/Unisphere%20for%20VMAX%20IM%208.3_srg.pdf (page 4)


QUESTION 3
A company has two VMAX3 arrays installed at two different sites. VMAX3 eNAS is configured on both arrays with IP
network connectivity between them. The company wants to replicate file data between the two VMAX3 arrays. Which
EMC technology will meet the requirement without additional hardware?
A. Replicator
B. TimeFinder
C. SRDF
D. RecoverPoint
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator recently installed Unisphere for VMAX and wants to determine the available ports on the VMAX
200K. What should be selected within Unisphere to obtain this information?
A. System > Dashboard
B. Administration Tasks
C. Host > Tasks
D. Storage > Tasks and Dashboard
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu59483.pdf (p.727)


QUESTION 5
Two RDF groups from two VMAX3 arrays have been added to a Consistency Group. SRDF/A Multi-Session
Consistency (MSC) has been enabled for the Consistency Group. The RDF daemon has been started on a single host
that has
access to both the VMAX3 arrays.
What will happen if this host becomes unavailable?
A. Cycle switching will stop
B. SRDF mode will change to Adaptive Copy Disk
C. RDF links will be suspended immediately
D. SRDF pair state will become Partitioned
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A storage administrator is using Unisphere for VMAX to provision storage to a virtual machine. This virtual machine
needs to share an RDM device that is already presented to another virtual machine. The administrator is unable to
select
the existing RDM to present to the virtual machine.
What could be the cause?
A. Volumes already presented as an RDM to other virtual machines are excluded from the available volumes list
B. Only available storage from datastores can be presented to virtual machines using Unisphere for VMAX
C. No volumes are available and a new volume cannot be created
D. Existing volumes can only be presented to physical hosts
Correct Answer: A

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XtremIO Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects

EMC Technology Architect E20-526 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
A storage administrator has 20 TB of storage provisioned to their ESXi cluster from a 10 TB XtremIO storage array. The
the administrator is concerned about running out of physical capacity on the XtremIO.
Which recommendation will assist the administrator?
A. Enable VAAI TPSTUN
B. Increase the compression ratio on the XtremIO
C. Disable VAAI XCOPY
D. Thick provisioned eager zero all VM virtual disks
Correct Answer: A
TPSTUN is a VAAI primitive that enables the array to notify vSphere when a LUN is running out of space due to thin
provisioning over-commit. The command causes suspending all virtual machines on that LUN. XtremIO supports this
VAAI primitive.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include:
Clone Blocks/Full Copy/XCOPY
Used for copying or migrating data within the same physical array (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedMove).
On XtremIO, this allows VM cloning to take place almost instantaneously, without affecting user I/O on active VMs.
D: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include: Zero Blocks/Write Same
Used for zeroing-out disk regions (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedInit).
This feature provides accelerated volume formatting.
References: https://itzikr.wordpress.com/2015/12/16/host-configuration-for-vmware-vsphere-on-emc-xtremio/


QUESTION 2
A customer\\’s storage administration team wants to receive e-mail notifications when the XtremIO cluster detects an
issue of major seventy. The customer has successfully configured and tested the e-mail server in the XtremIO GUI.
However, the e-mail server is not receiving the expected notifications when major severity issues appear.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. Alert definitions have not been defined
B. Event handlers have not been defined
C. Public reports have not been defined
D. Private reports have not been defined
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
An XtremIO administrator is having a problem with performance and is troubleshooting the issue. What is an accurate
statement about I/O transfers?
A. As I/O size increases, IOPs increase, and latency increases
B. As I/O size increases, IOPs decrease, and bandwidth increases
C. As I/O size decreases, IOPs increase, and bandwidth increases
D. As I/O size decreases, IOPs decrease, and latency increases
Correct Answer: A
Large block I/O by nature incurs higher latency.
References: Introduction to the EMC XtremIO STORAGE ARRAY (April 2015), page 6


QUESTION 4
When creating XtremIO volumes for a host, which operating systems will benefit by changing the default logical block
size for applications consisting of 4 KB I/Os?
A. Microsoft Windows and RHEL
B. VMware ESX and Microsoft Windows
C. RHEL and IBM AIX
D. Sun Solaris and HP-UX
Correct Answer: B
With VMware ESX 5.5, the VMware hypervisor cannot work with LUNs that use a logical block size of 4K. When using
VMware, be sure to specify Normal (512 LBs) from your XtremIO array. References:
https://gruffdba.wordpress.com/2015/08/02/4k-logical-block-size-size-fails-on-vmware/

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to use the Cinder driver to manage XtremIO storage in an OpenStack environment. What is a
potential concern?
A. Compression is not supported
B. Deduplication is not supported
C. Snapshots of snapshots are not supported
D. Volume expansion cannot be reversed
Correct Answer: D
Incorrect Answers:
B: OpenStack Cinder features include:
Clone a volume: With inline deduplication, compression, and thin provisioning.
C, D: EMC XtremIO OpenStack Block Storage driver, supported operations: Create, delete, clone, attach, and detach
volumes Create and delete volume snapshots Create a volume from a snapshot Copy an image to a volume Copy a
volume to an image Extend a volume
References: https://docs.openstack.org/juno/config-reference/content/XtremIO-cinder-driver.html
https://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h13287-ds-xtremio-openstack.pdf


QUESTION 6
A customer has a group of applications that need storage which can provide low response times. The total I/O
requirements are 75,000 IOPs with a 4 KB block size. They will have 500 LUNs and need to keep 30 daily snapshots of
each LUN. What is the smallest XtremIO configuration that will meet their needs?
A. 1 cluster with 2 X-Bricks
B. 1 cluster with 4 X-Bricks
C. 2 clusters with 1 X-Brick each
D. 2 clusters with 2 X-Bricks each
Correct Answer: A

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Specialist-System Administrator – RecoverPoint Version 2.0

EMC RecoverPoint E20-575 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
Which parameter is used as the Locking ID for a RecoverPoint/CL license?
A. RecoverPoint Cluster ID
B. RecoverPoint System ID
C. Array serial number if VNX arrays are used
D. VPLEX Cluster-ID if protecting virtual volumes
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/222535?start=0andtstart=0


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the save_settings command?
A. Create a script file that can later be used to recreate the system configuration
B. Modify or configure the RecoverPoint configuration backup interval
C. Preserve the configuration of a RecoverPoint Appliance prior to replacement
D. Commit cluster configuration changes to the repository volume
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/124306?tstart=0


QUESTION 3
A RecoverPoint administrator is planning to use RecoverPoint to protect their applications. The administrator needs to
protect 8192 production volumes. The RecoverPoint system has two physical clusters using VNX arrays. What is a
possible Consistency Group configuration?
A. 4096 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
B. 4096 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
C. 8192 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
D. 8192 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which RecoverPoint CLI command can be used to show a summarization of the errors and warnings for either one site
or the entire RecoverPoint system?
A. get_rpa_states
B. get_events_log
C. get_system_status
D. get_clusters_topology
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/221561


QUESTION 5
A RecoverPoint administrator wants to add volumes from an unlicensed array to a RecoverPoint/EX cluster. Which
supported RecoverPoint volume type(s) addresses the administrator\\’s requirement?
A. Journal and Copy
B. Repository and Journal
C. Repository only
D. Journal only
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A storage administrator wants to protect their distributed VPLEX volumes using the RecoverPoint, MetroPoint feature.
The administrator wants to know if they need to be aware of any special considerations. What information should be
provided to the administrator?
A. Set the RecoverPoint Group Policy to enable group writes across RPAs
B. RecoverPoint does not support replication of distributed VPLEX devices
C. All VPLEX devices at both sites can be protected using MetroPoint, regardless of whether they are local or
distributed
D. Both VPLEX clusters must have a RecoverPoint cluster connected in order to create a MetroPoint Consistency
Group
Correct Answer: A

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Cloud Services Expert Exam for Cloud Architects

EMC Cloud Services E20-920 Exam Practice Test

QUESTION 1
Which IT Governance principle should cloud services adhere to?
A. Asset valuation
B. Data classification
C. Strategic alignment
D. Risk profiling
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
The principles of Autonomy, Abstraction, Discoverability, Composability, and Reusability are all principles of what?
A. Application profiling
B. Service inventory
C. Delivery models
D. Service characteristics
Correct Answer: B
Reference https://www.slideshare.net/MohamedZakarya2/soa-principles-4service-loose-coupling


QUESTION 3
An IT organization has hired you as a cloud architect to assist them in planning for cloud services. Your first goal is to
help the IT organization categorize existing services against service characteristics. You have provided a table that
shows common service characteristics and their attributes for considerations, benefits, and trade-offs.
The following attributes from the table have been identified:
Consideration: bundling services increases complexity Benefit: replaceable components, improved recovery from failure
Tradeoff: very finite capability
What characteristics correspond to the identified attributes?
A. Discoverable, Composable, and Idempotent
B. Discoverable, Reusable, and Autonomy
C. Composable, Loosely Coupled, and Autonomy
D. Idempotent, Loosely Coupled, and Reusable
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
In a hypothetical future scenario, a CFO wants the corporation\\’s intelligent lighting system to turn on only when
humans are present, as well as change color depending on the time of day and local weather conditions.
What emerging 3rd Platform technologies would enable the desired capabilities?
A. Big data analytics and augmented humans
B. Internet of Things and sensor networks
C. Sensor networks and big data analytics
D. Augmented humans and Internet of Things
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
An IT organization adopted the ITaaS model to offer services to their business units. They want to assess their
readiness for creating and operating cloud services. What would be an appropriate assessment for them to perform
related to governance?
A. Assess the readiness of the current service catalog
B. Determine the cost information needed for charging any service
C. Assess the skills of the IT staff to determine training needs
D. Assess the compliance needs and requirements for any service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A mobile company has processes in place for service support. One process facilitates collaboration and is a placeholder
for functional requests; another process contains metadata on systems, networks, and software. What types of
processes are these?
A. Configuration Management and Incident Management
B. Change Management and Release Management
C. Change Management and Incident Management
D. Configuration Management and Release Management
Correct Answer: D

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1Y0-204 Exam, Citrix

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Citrix Virtual Apps 1Y0-204 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
The “Limit Visibility” option should be configured when a Citrix Administrator wants to ____________. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. define what a custom administrator role can view within Citrix Studio
B. restrict which Windows administrative menus can be accessed within a virtual desktop session
C. prevent all access to an application which is installed on a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine
D. hide a published application on Citrix Workspace app for specified users
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/published-applications/


QUESTION 2
Which step can a Citrix Administrator take in order to use the default compression policies?
A. Bind the default compression policies to the virtual server.
B. Enable compression on the associated bound services.
C. Disable the Citrix ADC Compression feature at a global level.
D. Select the compression algorithm (gzip/deflate/identity).
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator suspects an attack on a load balancing virtual server. The administrator needs to restrict
access to the load balancing virtual server (192.168.100.25) for 10 minutes. Which Access Control List (ACL) will help to
accomplish this requirement?
A. add simpleacl rule1 DENY –srcIP 192.168.100.25-TTL 600
B. add ns acl rule1 DENY –destIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600
C. add simpleacl rule1 DENY –srcIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600000
D. add ns acl rule1 DENY –destIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: The Help Dest team is troubleshooting a printing issue. Users connect to print servers located in two different
datacenters. The print servers host identical drivers and queues. Upon investigation, a Citrix Administrator finds that
users can only print to one of the print servers successfully.
The Network team informed the administrator that only Citrix-related traffic is allowed between the two Sites.
How can the administrator fix this issue?
A. Create a Citrix policy that limits the bandwidth consumption used by printing.
B. Create a Citrix policy that disables direct connections to the print servers.
C. Install Universal printer drivers to all print servers.
D. Create a Citrix policy to auto-create printers.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which layer contains the Site database in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Architecture model?
A. Access
B. User
C. Control
D. Resource
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/tech-zone/design/reference-architectures/virtual-apps-and-desktopsservice.html


QUESTION 6
For which three components can Citrix Director capture utilization statistics? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. IOPS
C. Disk space
D. Network
E. Memory
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2016/06/13/citrix-director-cpu-memory-usage-and-process-information/


QUESTION 7
What must a Citrix Administrator do to encrypt XML traffic between StoreFront and the Delivery Controllers?
A. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server and then add a new Internet Information Services (IIS)
binding for HTTPS.
B. Install a private server certificate on each Delivery Controller and bind the certificates to port 443.
C. Install a private certificate on each Delivery Controller and StoreFront server. Restart each server to force XML
communication to be encrypted.
D. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server. Open the StoreFront console and use the https:// prefix
with the base URL.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.jgspiers.com/securing-ddc-xml-broker-communication-over-https/


QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing policies in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site. The administrator is
using both Active Directory Organizational Unit (OU) level GPOs and Citrix local-Site policies to maintain the Site. All
non-Citrix user and computer policies are implemented through domain- level GPOs.
Which policies will be processes first for this Site when a user creates an HDX session?
A. Citrix local-Site policies
B. Domain-level GROs
C. OU level GPOs
D. Site-level GPOs
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator plans to implement HDX Insight in an environment to troubleshoot intermittent issues.
The administrator needs to know which components make up HDX Insight to ensure that all of the necessary
prerequisites are configured.
Which three components will the administrator need to review? (Choose three.)
A. Citrix Application Delivery Management
B. Citrix Studio
C. Web Insight
D. Citrix Gateway
E. Citrix Director
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix ADC appliance is having intermittent issues. A Citrix Administrator is unable to identify the root cause
and fix them. The administrator opened a Support ticket and the Engineer assigned to the case requested all the logs
and configuration information from the Citrix ADC.
Which technical support tool can the administrator use to gather all the information on the Citrix ADC to send to the
Support Engineer?
A. Start New Trace
B. Get Back Trace
C. Generate Support File
D. Batch Configuration
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX127900


QUESTION 11
Which mode on the Citrix ADC can a Citrix Administrator utilize to avoid asymmetrical packet flows and multiple
route/ARP lookups?
A. Use Subnet IP (USNIP)
B. MAC-based forwarding (MBF)
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which command should a Citrix Administrator use to configure a Content Switching virtual server for implementing the
Citrix Secure Web Gateway in the transparent proxy mode?
A. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY * 21 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs B. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY** -Authn401 on –authnVsName explicit-auth-vs
C. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY 192.168.10.1 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs
D. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY 192.168.10.1 80 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A user is working on a document in an HDX session and saves data on the desktop. The Virtual Delivery
Agent (VDA) session abruptly crashes, causing the saved data to be lost. Which Citrix Profile Management policy can a
Citrix Administrator enable to prevent data loss?
A. Active Write Back
B. Profile Streaming
C. Delay Cached Profile Deletion
D. Profile Caching
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft MCSA: SQL 2016 Database Development 70-761 practice test questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A database has two tables as shown in the following database diagram:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q1

You need to list all provinces that have at least two large cities. A large city is defined as having a population of at least
one million residents. The query must return the following columns:
tblProvince.ProvinceId
tblProvince.ProvinceName
a derived column named LargeCityCount that presents the total count of large cities for the province
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q1-2

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The requirement to list all provinces that have at least two large cities is meet by the WHERE
CitySummary.LargeCityCount >=2 clause.
CROSS APPLY willwork fine here.
Note:
The APPLY operator allows you to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by an outer table expression of
a query. The table-valued function acts as the right input and the outer table expression acts as the left input. The right
input is evaluated for each row from the left input and the rows produced are combined for the final output. The list of
columns produced by the APPLY operator is the set of columns in the left input followed by the list of columns returned
by
the right input.
There are two forms of APPLY: CROSS APPLY and OUTER APPLY. CROSS APPLY returns only rows from the outer
table that produce a result set from the table-valued function. OUTER APPLY returns both rows that produce a result
set,
and rows that do not, with NULL values in the columns produced by the table-valued function.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
You are developing a database to track customer orders. The database contains the following tables: Sales.Customers,
Sales.Orders, and Sales.OrderLines. The following table describes the columns in Sales.Customers.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q2

You need to create a function that accepts a CustomerID as a parameter and returns the following information:
all customer information for the customer
the total number of orders for the customer
the total price of all orders for the customer
the average quantity of items per order How should you complete the function definition? To answer, drag the
appropriate Transact-SQL segment to the correct locations. Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once,
or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q2-2

Box1: RETURNS TABLE
The function should return the following information:
all customer information for the customer
the total number of orders for the customer
the total price of all orders for the customer
the average quantity of items per order
Box 2: COUNT
The function should return the total number of orders for the customer.
Box 3: SUM
The function should return the total price of all orders for the customer.
Box 3. AVG
The function should return the average quantity of items per order.
Box 4: GROUP BY
Need to use GROUP BY for the aggregate functions.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186755.aspx

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
You work for an organization that monitors seismic activity around volcanos. You have a table named GroundSensors.
The table stored data collected from seismic sensors. It includes the columns describes in the following table:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3

The database also contains a scalar value function named NearestMountain that accepts a parameter of type
geography and returns the name of the mountain that is nearest to the sensor.
You need to create a query that shows the average of the normalized readings from the sensors for each mountain. The
query must meet the following requirements:
Return the average normalized readings named AverageReading.
Return the nearest mountain name named Mountain.
Do not return any other columns.
Exclude sensors for which no normalized reading exists.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use one part names to reference tables, columns and functions.
Do not use parentheses unless required.
Define column headings using the AS keyword.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3-2

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3-3

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer:
1 SELECT avg (normalizedreading) as AverageReading, location as Mountain
2 FROM GroundSensors
3 WHERE normalizedreading is not null
Note: On line 1 change to AverageReading and change to Mountain.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains tables named Customer_CRMSystem and Customer_HRSystem. Both tables use
the following structure:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4

Customer_HRSystem

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-2

Records that contain null values for CustomerCode can be uniquely identified by CustomerName. You need to display a
Cartesian product, combining both tables.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-3

A. B. C.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-4

D. E. F. G. H.
Correct Answer: G
A cross join that does not have a WHERE clause produces the Cartesian product of the tables involved in the join. The
size of a Cartesian product result set is the number of rows in the first table multiplied by the number of rows in the
second table.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190690(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 5
You have a database that contains the following tables:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q5

You need to write a query that returns a list of all customers who have not placed orders. Which Transact-SQL
statement should you run?
A. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c INNER JOIN Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid
B. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers INTERSECTSELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
C. SELECTc.custid FROM Sales.Customers c LEFT OUTER Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid
D. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c LEFT OUTER JOIN Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid WHERE
orderid IS NULL
E. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers UNION ALL SELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
F. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers UNION SELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
G. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c RIGHT OUTER JOIN Sales.Orders o ON c.custid = o.custid
Correct Answer: D
Inner joins return rows only when there is at least one row from both tables that matches the join condition. Inner joins
eliminate the rows that do not match with a row from the other table. Outer joins, however, return all rows from at least
one of the tables or views mentioned in the FROM clause, as long as those rows meet any WHERE or HAVING search
conditions. All rows are retrieved from the left table referenced with a left outer join, and all rows from the right table
referenced in a right outer join. All rows from both tables are returned in a full outer join.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187518(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
You create a table named Sales.Orders by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6

You need to write a query that removes orders from the table that have a Status of Canceled.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
use one-part column names and two-part table names
use single quotes around literal values
do not use functions
do not surround object names with square brackets
do not use variables
do not use aliases for column names and table names

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6-2

 Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6-3

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer:
1. DELETE from sales.orders where status=\\’Canceled\\’
Note: On line 1 change calceled to Canceled
Example: Using the WHERE clause to delete a set of rows
The following example deletes all rows from the ProductCostHistory table in the AdventureWorks2012 database in
which the value in the StandardCost column is more than 1000.00.
DELETE FROM Production.ProductCostHistory
WHERE StandardCost > 1000.00;
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/delete-transact-sql

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You have a database that contains the following tables:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7

A delivery person enters an incorrect value for the CustomerID column in the Invoices table and enters the following text
in the ConfirmedReceivedBy column: “Package signed for by the owner Tim.”
You need to find the records in the Invoices table that contain the word Tim in the CustomerName field along with the
incorrectly entered row from the Sales.Invoice table.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7-2

Correct Answer:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7-3

Box 1:SELECT CustomerID FROM Sales.Invoices
Box 2:INNER JOIN Sales.Customers.CustomerID = Sales.Invoices.CustomerID
Box 3:WHERE CustomerName LIKE \\’%tim%\\’
Box 4:WHERE ConfirmedReceiveBy IN (SELECT CustomerName FROM Sales.Customers)

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are creating indexes in a data warehouse.
You have a dimension table named Table1 that has 10,000 rows. The rows are used to generate several reports.
The reports join a column that is the primary key.
The execution plan contains bookmark lookups for Table1.
You discover that the reports run slower than expected.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to run the reports.
Solution: You create a nonclustered index on the primary key column that includes the bookmark lookup columns.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a table that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9

The Products table includes the data shown in the following table:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9-2

TotalUnitPrice is calculated by using the following formula:
TotalUnitPrice = UnitPrice * (UnitsInStock + UnitsOnOrder)
You need to ensure that the value returned for TotalUnitPrice for ProductB is equal to 600.00.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9-3

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The NULL value in the UnitsOnOrder field would cause a runtime error.

QUESTION 10
You have a database named MyDb. You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q10

A value of 1 in the IsActive column indicates that a user is active.
You need to create a count for active users in each role. If a role has no active users. You must display a zero as the
active users count.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q10-2

 A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that contains two tables named Sales.Customers and Sales.Orders.
Sales.Customers has a foreign key relationship to a column named CustomerID in Sales.Orders.
You need to recommend a query that returns all the customers. The query must also return the number of orders that
each customer placed in 2016.
Solution: You recommend the following query:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q11

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/functions/count-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column
named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.
Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products
table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these
products.
You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing
for products that customers are permitted to order. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q12

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Products with a price of $0.00 would also be increased.

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
You have a database that contains the following tables.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q13

You need to create a query that lists the highest-performing salespersons based on the current year-to-date sales
period. The query must meet the following requirements:
Return the LastName and SalesYTD for the three salespersons with the highest year-to-date sales values.
Exclude salespersons that have no value for TerritoryID.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use the first letter of a table name as the table alias.
Use two-part column names.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.
Do not use implicit joins.
Use only single quotes for literal text.
Use aliases only if required.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q13-2

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.
1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD 2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s 3 ON p.PersonID =
s.SalesPersonID 4 WHERE territoryid is null 5 order by salesytd dsec
Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer: Please see
1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD
2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s
3 ON p.PersonID = s.SalesPersonID
4 WHERE territoryid is not null
5 order by salesytd desc
Note:
On line 4 add a not before null.
On line 5 change dsec to desc.

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CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Exam Practice Test Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the
date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information
Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would
BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what
files were changed.
Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to
verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the
hash values differ, there is a difference between the two images.


QUESTION 2
An application present on the majority of an organization\\’s 1,000 systems is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack.
Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue?
A. Deploy custom HIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
B. Validate and deploy the appropriate patch.
C. Run the application in terminal services to reduce the threat landscape.
D. Deploy custom NIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
Correct Answer: B
If an application has a known issue (such as susceptibility to buffer overflow attacks) and a patch is released to resolve
the specific issue, then the best solution is always to deploy the patch. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or
process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are
created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into
adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through
programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow
attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the
attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user\\’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information.
Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor
programming practices supplied the vulnerability.

QUESTION 3
Given the following information about a company\\’s internal network:
User IP space: 192.168.1.0/24
Server IP space: 192.168.192.0/25
A security engineer has been told that there are rogue websites hosted outside of the proper server space, and those
websites need to be identified. Which of the following should the engineer do?
A. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.1.0/24
B. Use a port scanner on 192.168.1.0/24
C. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.1.0/24
D. Use a port scanner on 192.168.192.0/25
E. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.192.0/25
F. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.192.0/25
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password
compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the
following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe?
A. TOTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: D
The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use
codes.
HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm.
HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried
out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent
OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server.
Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP
tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for
strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP.
Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.

QUESTION 5
A security administrator must configure the database server shown below the comply with the four requirements listed.
Drag and drop the appropriate ACL that should be configured on the database server to its corresponding requirement.
Answer options may be used once or not at all.

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q5

Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing the controls in place to support the organization\\’s vulnerability
management program. The CISO finds patching and vulnerability scanning policies and procedures are in place.
However, the CISO is concerned the organization is siloed and is not maintaining awareness of new risks to the
organization. The CISO determines systems administrators need to participate in industry security events. Which of the
following is the CISO looking to improve?
A. Vendor diversification
B. System hardening standards
C. Bounty programs
D. Threat awareness
E. Vulnerability signatures
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device
to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a
security team member to look into the issue.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?
A. The OS version is not compatible
B. The OEM is prohibited
C. The device does not support FDE
D. The device is rooted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A new database application was added to a company\\’s hosted VM environment. Firewall ACLs were modified to allow
database users to access the server remotely. The company\\’s cloud security broker then identified abnormal from a
database user on-site. Upon further investigation, the security team noticed the user ran code on a VM that provided
access to the hypervisor directly and access to other sensitive data.
Which of the following should the security do to help mitigate future attacks within the VM environment? (Choose two.)
A. Install the appropriate patches.
B. Install perimeter NGFW.
C. Configure VM isolation.
D. Deprovision database VM.
E. Change the user\\’s access privileges.
F. Update virus definitions on all endpoints.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 9
A forensics analyst suspects that a breach has occurred. Security logs show the company\\’s OS patch system may be
compromised, and it is serving patches that contain a zero-day exploit and backdoor. The analyst extracts an
executable file from a packet capture of communication between a client computer and the patch server.
Which of the following should the analyst use to confirm this suspicion?
A. File size
B. Digital signature
C. Checksums
D. Anti-malware software
E. Sandboxing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been asked to develop a security dashboard with the relevant metrics. The
board of directors will use the dashboard to monitor and track the overall security posture of the organization. The CIO
produces a basic report containing both KPI and KRI data in two separate sections for the board to review.
Which of the following BEST meets the needs of the board?
A. KRI:- Compliance with regulations- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Severity of threats and
vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basisKPI:- Time to resolve open security
items- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- EDR coverage across the fleet- Threat landscape
rating
B. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Time to patch critical issues on a
monthly basis- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- % of
suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
C. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- % of suppliers with approved security control framework- Backlog of
unresolved security investigations- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with
regulations-Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
D. KPI:- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and
vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Threat landscape ratingKRI:- Time to resolve open security items- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- EDR coverage across the fleet- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A security analyst is reviewing logs and discovers that a company-owned computer issued to an employee is generating
many alerts and analyst continues to review the log events and discovers that a non-company-owned device from a
different, unknown IP address is general same events. The analyst informs the manager of these finding, and the
manager explains that these activities are already known and . . . ongoing simulation. Given this scenario, which of the
following roles are the analyst, the employee, and the manager fillings?
A. The analyst is red team The employee is blue team The manager is white team
B. The analyst is white team The employee is red team The manager is blue team
C. The analyst is red team The employee is white team The manager is blue team
D. The analyst is blue team The employee is red team The manager is white team
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An online bank has contracted with a consultant to perform a security assessment of the bank\\’s web portal. The
consultant notices the login page is linked from the main page with HTTPS, but when the URL is changed to HTTP, the
browser is automatically redirected back to the HTTPS site. Which of the following is a concern for the consultant, and
how can it be mitigated?
A. XSS could be used to inject code into the login page during the redirect to the HTTPS site. The consultant should
implement a WAF to prevent this.
B. The consultant is concerned the site is using an older version of the SSL 3.0 protocol that is vulnerable to a variety of
attacks. Upgrading the site to TLS 1.0 would mitigate this issue.
C. The HTTP traffic is vulnerable to network sniffing, which could disclose usernames and passwords to an attacker.
The consultant should recommend disabling HTTP on the web server.
D. A successful MITM attack Could intercept the redirect and use sslstrip to decrypt further HTTPS traffic. Implementing
HSTS on the web server would prevent this.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
A hospital uses a legacy electronic medical record system that requires multicast for traffic between the application
servers and databases on virtual hosts that support segments of the application. Following a switch upgrade, the
electronic medical record is unavailable despite physical connectivity between the hypervisor and the storage being in
place. The network team must enable multicast traffic to restore access to the electronic medical record. The ISM states
that the network team must reduce the footprint of multicast traffic on the network.

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q13

Using the above information, on which VLANs should multicast be enabled?
A. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400
B. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN700
C. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700
D. VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700
Correct Answer: D

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