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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 practice test (q1-q13)

QUESTION 1
A business analyst is drafting a risk assessment.
Which of the following components should be included in the draft? (Choose two.)
A. Asset management
B. Database type
C. Encryption algorithms
D. Certificate name
E. Asset inventory
F. Data classification
Correct Answer: AF


QUESTION 2
A developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the
company\\’s cloud engineer.
Which of the following does this BEST describe?
A. Subscription services
B. Containerization
C. User self-service
D. Autonomous environments
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes
fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered?
A. Time to market
B. Operating expenditure fees
C. BYOL costs
D. Human capital
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company has a perpetual license for a database application. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective option
when moving to the cloud?
A. Fixed
B. Subscription
C. EULA
D. BYOL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which of the following cloud principles will help manage the risk of a network breach?
A. Shared responsibility
B. Self-service
C. Availability
D. Elasticity
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
An online retailer wants to ensure its inventory for the holiday season is correct. The company does not have a large IT
infrastructure or staff to collect and analyze sales information, customer analytics, marketing information, or trends.
Which of the following cloud services will help the company analyze these metrics without a large investment in human
capital?
A. Containerization
B. Big Data
C. Microservices
D. Blockchain
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A company wants to migrate mission-critical applications to the cloud. In order for technicians to build, decommission, and perform other routine functions, which of the following cloud characteristics would BEST satisfy this business
requirement?
A. Self-service
B. Elasticity
C. Broad network access
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Avoidance
D. Transference
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Transferring all of a customer\\’s on-premises data and virtual machines to an appliance, and then shipping it to a cloud
provider is a technique used in a:
A. phased migration approach.
B. replatforming migration approach.
C. rip and replace migration approach.
D. lift and shift migration approach.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which of the following are true about the use of machine learning in a cloud environment? (Choose two).
A. Specialized machine learning algorithms can be deployed to optimize results for specific scenarios.
B. Machine learning can just be hosted in the cloud for managed services.
C. Just one type of cloud storage is available in the cloud for machine learning workloads.
D. Machine learning can leverage processes in a cloud environment through the use of cloud storage and auto-scaling.
E. Machine learning requires a specialized IT team to create the machine learning models from scratch.
F. Using machine learning solutions in the cloud removes the data-gathering step from the learning process.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the cloud storage technology that would allow a company with 12 nearly identical servers to
have the SMALLEST storage footprint?
A. Capacity on demand
B. Compression
C. Software-defined storage
D. Deduplication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A systems administrator is reviewing a disaster recovery option that requires little to no downtime in the event of a
natural disaster.
Which of the following BEST meets this requirement?
A. Configure availability zones.
B. Configure high availability.
C. Configure geo-redundancy.
D. Configure auto-scaling.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following BEST explains the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use?
A. To reduce the amount of data loss that can occur in the event of a server failure
B. To ensure the restored server is available and operational within a given window of time
C. To ensure the data on the restored server is current within a given window of time
D. To reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline
Correct Answer: B

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Other CompTIA Exams

TK0-201 220-1001 220-1002 CAS-003 CLO-001 CV0-002 CV0-003 CS0-001 CS0-002 FC0-U61

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Fortinet NSE 4 - FortiOS 6.2

Latest Fortinet NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam video

Fortinet NSE4 NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Examine this output from a debug flow:

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q1

Why did the FortiGate drop the packet?
A. The next-hop IP address is unreachable.
B. It failed the RPF check.
C. It matched an explicitly configured firewall policy with the action DENY.
D. It matched the default implicit firewall policy.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Examine the exhibit, which contains a virtual IP and firewall policy configuration.

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q2

The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24. The LAN (port2) interface has the IP address
10.0.1.254/24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled on the outgoing interface address. The second firewall policy is configured with
a VIP as the destination address.
Which IP address will be used to source NAT the Internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address
10.0.1.10/24?
A. 10.200.1.10
B. Any available IP address in the WAN (port1) subnet 10.200.1.0/24
C. 10.200.1.1
D. 10.0.1.254
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
If the Services field is configured in a Virtual IP (VIP), which of the following statements is true when central NAT is
used?
A. The Services field removes the requirement of creating multiple VIPs for different services.
B. The Services field is used when several VIPs need to be bundled into VIP groups.
C. The Services field does not allow source NAT and destination NAT to be combined in the same policy.
D. The Services field does not allow multiple sources of traffic, to use multiple services, to connect to a single
computer.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
If the Issuer and Subject values are the same in a digital certificate, which type of entity was the certificate issued to?
A. A CRL
B. A person
C. A subordinate CA
D. A root CA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following route attributes must be equal for static routes to be eligible for equal cost multipath (ECMP)
routing? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Metric
C. Distance
D. Cost
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 6
View the exhibit.

Janintraining NSE4_FGT-6.2 exam questions-q6

Why is the administrator getting the error shown in the exhibit?
A. The administrator must first enter the command edit global.
B. The administrator admin does not have the privileges required to configure global settings.
C. The global settings cannot be configured from the root VDOM context.
D. The command config system global does not exist in FortiGate.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
If traffic matches a DLP filter with the action set to Quarantine IP Address, what action does FortiGate take?
A. It notifies the administrator by sending an email.
B. It provides a DLP block replacement page with a link to download the file.
C. It blocks all future traffic for that IP address for a configured interval.
D. It archives the data for that IP address.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
The FSSO collector agent set to advanced access mode for the Windows Active Directory uses which convention?
A. LDAP
B. Windows
C. RSSO
D. NTLM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator has configured a dialup IPsec VPN with XAuth. Which statement best describes what occurs during
this scenario?
A. Phase 1 negotiations will skip preshared key exchange.
B. Only digital certificates will be accepted as an authentication method in phase 1.C
C. Dialup clients must provide a username and password for authentication.
D. Dialup clients must provide their local ID during phase 2 negotiations.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
How does FortiGate verify the login credentials of a remote LDAP user?
A. FortiGate regenerates the algorithm based on the login credentials and compares it to the algorithm stored on the
LDAP server.
B. FortiGate sends the user-entered credentials to the LDAP server for authentication.
C. FortiGate queries the LDAP server for credentials.
D. FortiGate queries its own database for credentials.
Correct Answer: B
 

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Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2

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Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Which statements are correct regarding FortiAnalyzer reports? (Choose two)
A. FortiAnalyzer provides the ability to create custom reports.
B. FortiAnalyzer glows you to schedule reports to run.
C. FortiAnalyzer includes pre-defined reports only.
D. FortiAnalyzer allows reporting for FortiGate devices only.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
What FortiView tool can you use to automatically build a dataset and chart based on a filtered search result?
A. Chart Builder
B. Export to Report Chart
C. Dataset Library
D. Custom View
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
FortiAnalyzer centralizes which functions? (Choose three)
A. Network analysis
B. Graphical reporting
C. Content archiving / data mining
D. Vulnerability assessment
E. Security log analysis / forensics
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding securing communications between FortiAnalyzer and FortiGate with IPsec?
(Choose two.)
A. Must configure the FortiAnalyzer end of the tunnel only–the FortiGate end is auto-negotiated.
B. Must establish an IPsec tunnel ID and pre-shared key.
C. IPsec cannot be enabled if SSL is enabled as well.
D. IPsec is only enabled through the CLI on FortiAnalyzer.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What can the CLI command # diagnose test application oftpd 3 help you to determine?
A. What devices and IP addresses are connecting to FortiAnalyzer
B. What logs, if any, are reaching FortiAnalyzer
C. What ADOMs are enabled and configured
D. What devices are registered and unregistered
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
On FortiAnalyzer, what is a wildcard administrator account?
A. An account that permits access to members of an LDAP group
B. An account that allows guest access with read-only privileges
C. An account that requires two-factor authentication
D. An account that validates against any user account on a FortiAuthenticator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which FortiAnalyzer feature allows you to retrieve the archived logs matching a specific timeframe from another
FortiAnalyzer device?
A. Log upload
B. Indicators of Compromise
C. Log forwarding an aggregation mode
D. Log fetching
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
How are logs forwarded when FortiAnalyzer is using aggregation mode?
A. Logs are forwarded as they are received and content files are uploaded at a scheduled time.
B. Logs and content files are stored and uploaded at a scheduled time.
C. Logs are forwarded as they are received.
D. Logs and content files are forwarded as they are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
View the exhibit:

Janintraining NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam questions-q9

What does the 1000MB maximum for disk utilization refer to?
A. The disk quota for the FortiAnalyzer model
B. The disk quota for all devices in the ADOM
C. The disk quota for each device in the ADOM
D. The disk quota for the ADOM type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit:

Janintraining NSE5_FAZ-6.2 exam questions-q10

Why is the total quota less than the total system storage?
A. 3.6% of the system storage is already being used.
B. Some space is reserved for system use, such as storage of compression files, upload files, and temporary report
files.
C. The oftpd process has not archived the logs yet.
D. The logfiled process is just estimating the total quota.
Correct Answer: B

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NSE 6 Network Security Specialist

Latest Fortinet NSE6_FML-6.0 exam video

Fortinet NSE6_FML-6.0 exam practice test

QUESTION 1
Examine the FortiMail archiving policies shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q1

Which of the following statements is true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spam email will be exempt from archiving
B. Email sent from [email protected] will be archived
C. Archived email will be saved in the journal account
D. Only the [email protected] account will be able to access the archived email
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Examine the access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q2

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Email from any host in the 10.0.1.0/24 subnet can match this rule
B. Senders must be authenticated to match this rule
C. Email matching this rule will be relayed
D. Email must originate from an example.com email address to match this rule
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
FortiMail is configured with the protected domain “example.com”. Identify which of the following envelope addresses will
require an access receive rule to relay for unauthenticated senders? (Choose two.)
A. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
B. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
C. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
D. MAIL FROM: [email protected] RCPT TO: [email protected]
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 4
Examine the FortiMail IBE users shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q4

Which one of the following statements describes the Pre-registered status of the IBE user [email protected]?
A. The user was registered by an administrator in anticipation of IBE participation
B. The user has completed the IBE registration process but has not yet accessed their IBE email
C. The user has received an IBE notification email, but has not accessed the HTTPS URL or attachment yet
D. The user account has been de-activated, and the user must register again the next time they receive an IBE email
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Examine the FortiMail topology and access receive rule shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q5

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q5-2

An administrator must enforce authentication on FML-1 for all outbound email from the example.com domain. Which of
the following settings should be used to configure the access receive rule? (Choose two.)
A. The Sender IP/netmask should be set to 10.29.1.0/24
B. The Authentication status should be set to Authenticated
C. The Recipient pattern should be set o *@example.com
D. The Action should be set to Reject
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Examine the FortiMail IBE service configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q6

Which of the following statements describes the User inactivity expiry time of 90 days?
A. First time IBE users must register to access their email within 90 days of receiving the notification email message
B. After initial registration, IBE users can access the secure portal without authenticating again for 90 days
C. Registered IBE users have 90 days from the time they receive a notification email message to access their IBE
email
D. IBE user accounts will expire after 90 days of inactivity, and must register again to access new IBE email message
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Examine the configured routes shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q7

Which interface will FortiMail use to forward an email message destined for 10.1.100.252?
A. port2
B. port4
C. port3
D. port1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which of the following antispam techniques queries FortiGuard for rating information? (Choose two.)
A. URI filter
B. IP reputation
C. SURBL
D. DNSBL
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 9
Examine the FortMail mail server settings shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Janintraining NSE6_FML-6.0 exam questions-q9

Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. mx.example.com will enforce SMTPS on all outbound sessions
B. mx.example.com will display STARTTLS as one of the supported commands in SMTP sessions
C. mx.example.com will accept SMTPS connections
D. mx.example.com will drop any inbound plaintext SMTP connection
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What are the configuration steps to enable DKIM signing for outbound messages on FortiMail? (Choose three.)
A. Enable DKIM signing for outgoing messages in a matching session profile
B. Publish the public key as a TXT record in a public DNS server
C. Enable DKIM check in a matching session profile
D. Enable DKIM check in a matching antispam profile
E. Generate a public/private key pair in the protected domain configuration
Correct Answer: ACE

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E20-507 exam, E20-526 exam, E20-575 exam, E20-920 exam, EMC

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VMAX3 Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators

EMC Storage Administrator E20-507 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
Which command enables consistency protection for devices in Concurrent SRDF?
A. symrdf enable consistency
B. symcfg enable consistency
C. symrdf enable
D. symcg enable
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which Database Management System(s) is used by Unisphere for VMAX v.8.3?
A. PostgreSQL and MySQL B. Oracle
C. PostgreSQL only
D. MySQL only
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://learningcontent.emc.com/gatekeepercontent/cninv000000000124493/presentation_content/external_fi
les/Unisphere%20for%20VMAX%20IM%208.3_srg.pdf (page 4)


QUESTION 3
A company has two VMAX3 arrays installed at two different sites. VMAX3 eNAS is configured on both arrays with IP
network connectivity between them. The company wants to replicate file data between the two VMAX3 arrays. Which
EMC technology will meet the requirement without additional hardware?
A. Replicator
B. TimeFinder
C. SRDF
D. RecoverPoint
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator recently installed Unisphere for VMAX and wants to determine the available ports on the VMAX
200K. What should be selected within Unisphere to obtain this information?
A. System > Dashboard
B. Administration Tasks
C. Host > Tasks
D. Storage > Tasks and Dashboard
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.emc.com/collateral/TechnicalDocument/docu59483.pdf (p.727)


QUESTION 5
Two RDF groups from two VMAX3 arrays have been added to a Consistency Group. SRDF/A Multi-Session
Consistency (MSC) has been enabled for the Consistency Group. The RDF daemon has been started on a single host
that has
access to both the VMAX3 arrays.
What will happen if this host becomes unavailable?
A. Cycle switching will stop
B. SRDF mode will change to Adaptive Copy Disk
C. RDF links will be suspended immediately
D. SRDF pair state will become Partitioned
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A storage administrator is using Unisphere for VMAX to provision storage to a virtual machine. This virtual machine
needs to share an RDM device that is already presented to another virtual machine. The administrator is unable to
select
the existing RDM to present to the virtual machine.
What could be the cause?
A. Volumes already presented as an RDM to other virtual machines are excluded from the available volumes list
B. Only available storage from datastores can be presented to virtual machines using Unisphere for VMAX
C. No volumes are available and a new volume cannot be created
D. Existing volumes can only be presented to physical hosts
Correct Answer: A

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XtremIO Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects

EMC Technology Architect E20-526 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
A storage administrator has 20 TB of storage provisioned to their ESXi cluster from a 10 TB XtremIO storage array. The
the administrator is concerned about running out of physical capacity on the XtremIO.
Which recommendation will assist the administrator?
A. Enable VAAI TPSTUN
B. Increase the compression ratio on the XtremIO
C. Disable VAAI XCOPY
D. Thick provisioned eager zero all VM virtual disks
Correct Answer: A
TPSTUN is a VAAI primitive that enables the array to notify vSphere when a LUN is running out of space due to thin
provisioning over-commit. The command causes suspending all virtual machines on that LUN. XtremIO supports this
VAAI primitive.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include:
Clone Blocks/Full Copy/XCOPY
Used for copying or migrating data within the same physical array (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedMove).
On XtremIO, this allows VM cloning to take place almost instantaneously, without affecting user I/O on active VMs.
D: The XtremIO features for VAAI support include: Zero Blocks/Write Same
Used for zeroing-out disk regions (VMware term: HardwareAcceleratedInit).
This feature provides accelerated volume formatting.
References: https://itzikr.wordpress.com/2015/12/16/host-configuration-for-vmware-vsphere-on-emc-xtremio/


QUESTION 2
A customer\\’s storage administration team wants to receive e-mail notifications when the XtremIO cluster detects an
issue of major seventy. The customer has successfully configured and tested the e-mail server in the XtremIO GUI.
However, the e-mail server is not receiving the expected notifications when major severity issues appear.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. Alert definitions have not been defined
B. Event handlers have not been defined
C. Public reports have not been defined
D. Private reports have not been defined
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
An XtremIO administrator is having a problem with performance and is troubleshooting the issue. What is an accurate
statement about I/O transfers?
A. As I/O size increases, IOPs increase, and latency increases
B. As I/O size increases, IOPs decrease, and bandwidth increases
C. As I/O size decreases, IOPs increase, and bandwidth increases
D. As I/O size decreases, IOPs decrease, and latency increases
Correct Answer: A
Large block I/O by nature incurs higher latency.
References: Introduction to the EMC XtremIO STORAGE ARRAY (April 2015), page 6


QUESTION 4
When creating XtremIO volumes for a host, which operating systems will benefit by changing the default logical block
size for applications consisting of 4 KB I/Os?
A. Microsoft Windows and RHEL
B. VMware ESX and Microsoft Windows
C. RHEL and IBM AIX
D. Sun Solaris and HP-UX
Correct Answer: B
With VMware ESX 5.5, the VMware hypervisor cannot work with LUNs that use a logical block size of 4K. When using
VMware, be sure to specify Normal (512 LBs) from your XtremIO array. References:
https://gruffdba.wordpress.com/2015/08/02/4k-logical-block-size-size-fails-on-vmware/

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to use the Cinder driver to manage XtremIO storage in an OpenStack environment. What is a
potential concern?
A. Compression is not supported
B. Deduplication is not supported
C. Snapshots of snapshots are not supported
D. Volume expansion cannot be reversed
Correct Answer: D
Incorrect Answers:
B: OpenStack Cinder features include:
Clone a volume: With inline deduplication, compression, and thin provisioning.
C, D: EMC XtremIO OpenStack Block Storage driver, supported operations: Create, delete, clone, attach, and detach
volumes Create and delete volume snapshots Create a volume from a snapshot Copy an image to a volume Copy a
volume to an image Extend a volume
References: https://docs.openstack.org/juno/config-reference/content/XtremIO-cinder-driver.html
https://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/h13287-ds-xtremio-openstack.pdf


QUESTION 6
A customer has a group of applications that need storage which can provide low response times. The total I/O
requirements are 75,000 IOPs with a 4 KB block size. They will have 500 LUNs and need to keep 30 daily snapshots of
each LUN. What is the smallest XtremIO configuration that will meet their needs?
A. 1 cluster with 2 X-Bricks
B. 1 cluster with 4 X-Bricks
C. 2 clusters with 1 X-Brick each
D. 2 clusters with 2 X-Bricks each
Correct Answer: A

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Specialist-System Administrator – RecoverPoint Version 2.0

EMC RecoverPoint E20-575 Exam Practice Test 1-6

QUESTION 1
Which parameter is used as the Locking ID for a RecoverPoint/CL license?
A. RecoverPoint Cluster ID
B. RecoverPoint System ID
C. Array serial number if VNX arrays are used
D. VPLEX Cluster-ID if protecting virtual volumes
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/222535?start=0andtstart=0


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of the save_settings command?
A. Create a script file that can later be used to recreate the system configuration
B. Modify or configure the RecoverPoint configuration backup interval
C. Preserve the configuration of a RecoverPoint Appliance prior to replacement
D. Commit cluster configuration changes to the repository volume
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/124306?tstart=0


QUESTION 3
A RecoverPoint administrator is planning to use RecoverPoint to protect their applications. The administrator needs to
protect 8192 production volumes. The RecoverPoint system has two physical clusters using VNX arrays. What is a
possible Consistency Group configuration?
A. 4096 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
B. 4096 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
C. 8192 Consistency Groups, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
D. 8192 replication sets, each with 1 remote copy and 1 local copy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which RecoverPoint CLI command can be used to show a summarization of the errors and warnings for either one site
or the entire RecoverPoint system?
A. get_rpa_states
B. get_events_log
C. get_system_status
D. get_clusters_topology
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://community.emc.com/thread/221561


QUESTION 5
A RecoverPoint administrator wants to add volumes from an unlicensed array to a RecoverPoint/EX cluster. Which
supported RecoverPoint volume type(s) addresses the administrator\\’s requirement?
A. Journal and Copy
B. Repository and Journal
C. Repository only
D. Journal only
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
A storage administrator wants to protect their distributed VPLEX volumes using the RecoverPoint, MetroPoint feature.
The administrator wants to know if they need to be aware of any special considerations. What information should be
provided to the administrator?
A. Set the RecoverPoint Group Policy to enable group writes across RPAs
B. RecoverPoint does not support replication of distributed VPLEX devices
C. All VPLEX devices at both sites can be protected using MetroPoint, regardless of whether they are local or
distributed
D. Both VPLEX clusters must have a RecoverPoint cluster connected in order to create a MetroPoint Consistency
Group
Correct Answer: A

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Cloud Services Expert Exam for Cloud Architects

EMC Cloud Services E20-920 Exam Practice Test

QUESTION 1
Which IT Governance principle should cloud services adhere to?
A. Asset valuation
B. Data classification
C. Strategic alignment
D. Risk profiling
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
The principles of Autonomy, Abstraction, Discoverability, Composability, and Reusability are all principles of what?
A. Application profiling
B. Service inventory
C. Delivery models
D. Service characteristics
Correct Answer: B
Reference https://www.slideshare.net/MohamedZakarya2/soa-principles-4service-loose-coupling


QUESTION 3
An IT organization has hired you as a cloud architect to assist them in planning for cloud services. Your first goal is to
help the IT organization categorize existing services against service characteristics. You have provided a table that
shows common service characteristics and their attributes for considerations, benefits, and trade-offs.
The following attributes from the table have been identified:
Consideration: bundling services increases complexity Benefit: replaceable components, improved recovery from failure
Tradeoff: very finite capability
What characteristics correspond to the identified attributes?
A. Discoverable, Composable, and Idempotent
B. Discoverable, Reusable, and Autonomy
C. Composable, Loosely Coupled, and Autonomy
D. Idempotent, Loosely Coupled, and Reusable
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
In a hypothetical future scenario, a CFO wants the corporation\\’s intelligent lighting system to turn on only when
humans are present, as well as change color depending on the time of day and local weather conditions.
What emerging 3rd Platform technologies would enable the desired capabilities?
A. Big data analytics and augmented humans
B. Internet of Things and sensor networks
C. Sensor networks and big data analytics
D. Augmented humans and Internet of Things
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
An IT organization adopted the ITaaS model to offer services to their business units. They want to assess their
readiness for creating and operating cloud services. What would be an appropriate assessment for them to perform
related to governance?
A. Assess the readiness of the current service catalog
B. Determine the cost information needed for charging any service
C. Assess the skills of the IT staff to determine training needs
D. Assess the compliance needs and requirements for any service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A mobile company has processes in place for service support. One process facilitates collaboration and is a placeholder
for functional requests; another process contains metadata on systems, networks, and software. What types of
processes are these?
A. Configuration Management and Incident Management
B. Change Management and Release Management
C. Change Management and Incident Management
D. Configuration Management and Release Management
Correct Answer: D

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1Y0-204 Exam, Citrix

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Citrix Virtual Apps 1Y0-204 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
The “Limit Visibility” option should be configured when a Citrix Administrator wants to ____________. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. define what a custom administrator role can view within Citrix Studio
B. restrict which Windows administrative menus can be accessed within a virtual desktop session
C. prevent all access to an application which is installed on a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine
D. hide a published application on Citrix Workspace app for specified users
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/published-applications/


QUESTION 2
Which step can a Citrix Administrator take in order to use the default compression policies?
A. Bind the default compression policies to the virtual server.
B. Enable compression on the associated bound services.
C. Disable the Citrix ADC Compression feature at a global level.
D. Select the compression algorithm (gzip/deflate/identity).
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator suspects an attack on a load balancing virtual server. The administrator needs to restrict
access to the load balancing virtual server (192.168.100.25) for 10 minutes. Which Access Control List (ACL) will help to
accomplish this requirement?
A. add simpleacl rule1 DENY –srcIP 192.168.100.25-TTL 600
B. add ns acl rule1 DENY –destIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600
C. add simpleacl rule1 DENY –srcIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600000
D. add ns acl rule1 DENY –destIP 192.168.100.25 –TTL 600000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: The Help Dest team is troubleshooting a printing issue. Users connect to print servers located in two different
datacenters. The print servers host identical drivers and queues. Upon investigation, a Citrix Administrator finds that
users can only print to one of the print servers successfully.
The Network team informed the administrator that only Citrix-related traffic is allowed between the two Sites.
How can the administrator fix this issue?
A. Create a Citrix policy that limits the bandwidth consumption used by printing.
B. Create a Citrix policy that disables direct connections to the print servers.
C. Install Universal printer drivers to all print servers.
D. Create a Citrix policy to auto-create printers.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Which layer contains the Site database in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Architecture model?
A. Access
B. User
C. Control
D. Resource
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/tech-zone/design/reference-architectures/virtual-apps-and-desktopsservice.html


QUESTION 6
For which three components can Citrix Director capture utilization statistics? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. IOPS
C. Disk space
D. Network
E. Memory
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2016/06/13/citrix-director-cpu-memory-usage-and-process-information/


QUESTION 7
What must a Citrix Administrator do to encrypt XML traffic between StoreFront and the Delivery Controllers?
A. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server and then add a new Internet Information Services (IIS)
binding for HTTPS.
B. Install a private server certificate on each Delivery Controller and bind the certificates to port 443.
C. Install a private certificate on each Delivery Controller and StoreFront server. Restart each server to force XML
communication to be encrypted.
D. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server. Open the StoreFront console and use the https:// prefix
with the base URL.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.jgspiers.com/securing-ddc-xml-broker-communication-over-https/


QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing policies in a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site. The administrator is
using both Active Directory Organizational Unit (OU) level GPOs and Citrix local-Site policies to maintain the Site. All
non-Citrix user and computer policies are implemented through domain- level GPOs.
Which policies will be processes first for this Site when a user creates an HDX session?
A. Citrix local-Site policies
B. Domain-level GROs
C. OU level GPOs
D. Site-level GPOs
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator plans to implement HDX Insight in an environment to troubleshoot intermittent issues.
The administrator needs to know which components make up HDX Insight to ensure that all of the necessary
prerequisites are configured.
Which three components will the administrator need to review? (Choose three.)
A. Citrix Application Delivery Management
B. Citrix Studio
C. Web Insight
D. Citrix Gateway
E. Citrix Director
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 10
Scenario: A Citrix ADC appliance is having intermittent issues. A Citrix Administrator is unable to identify the root cause
and fix them. The administrator opened a Support ticket and the Engineer assigned to the case requested all the logs
and configuration information from the Citrix ADC.
Which technical support tool can the administrator use to gather all the information on the Citrix ADC to send to the
Support Engineer?
A. Start New Trace
B. Get Back Trace
C. Generate Support File
D. Batch Configuration
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX127900


QUESTION 11
Which mode on the Citrix ADC can a Citrix Administrator utilize to avoid asymmetrical packet flows and multiple
route/ARP lookups?
A. Use Subnet IP (USNIP)
B. MAC-based forwarding (MBF)
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which command should a Citrix Administrator use to configure a Content Switching virtual server for implementing the
Citrix Secure Web Gateway in the transparent proxy mode?
A. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY * 21 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs B. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY** -Authn401 on –authnVsName explicit-auth-vs
C. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY 192.168.10.1 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs
D. add cs vserver swgVS PROXY 192.168.10.1 80 –Authn401 on –authnVsName transparent-auth-vs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A user is working on a document in an HDX session and saves data on the desktop. The Virtual Delivery
Agent (VDA) session abruptly crashes, causing the saved data to be lost. Which Citrix Profile Management policy can a
Citrix Administrator enable to prevent data loss?
A. Active Write Back
B. Profile Streaming
C. Delay Cached Profile Deletion
D. Profile Caching
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft MCSA: SQL 2016 Database Development 70-761 practice test questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
A database has two tables as shown in the following database diagram:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q1

You need to list all provinces that have at least two large cities. A large city is defined as having a population of at least
one million residents. The query must return the following columns:
tblProvince.ProvinceId
tblProvince.ProvinceName
a derived column named LargeCityCount that presents the total count of large cities for the province
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q1-2

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The requirement to list all provinces that have at least two large cities is meet by the WHERE
CitySummary.LargeCityCount >=2 clause.
CROSS APPLY willwork fine here.
Note:
The APPLY operator allows you to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by an outer table expression of
a query. The table-valued function acts as the right input and the outer table expression acts as the left input. The right
input is evaluated for each row from the left input and the rows produced are combined for the final output. The list of
columns produced by the APPLY operator is the set of columns in the left input followed by the list of columns returned
by
the right input.
There are two forms of APPLY: CROSS APPLY and OUTER APPLY. CROSS APPLY returns only rows from the outer
table that produce a result set from the table-valued function. OUTER APPLY returns both rows that produce a result
set,
and rows that do not, with NULL values in the columns produced by the table-valued function.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
You are developing a database to track customer orders. The database contains the following tables: Sales.Customers,
Sales.Orders, and Sales.OrderLines. The following table describes the columns in Sales.Customers.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q2

You need to create a function that accepts a CustomerID as a parameter and returns the following information:
all customer information for the customer
the total number of orders for the customer
the total price of all orders for the customer
the average quantity of items per order How should you complete the function definition? To answer, drag the
appropriate Transact-SQL segment to the correct locations. Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once,
or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q2-2

Box1: RETURNS TABLE
The function should return the following information:
all customer information for the customer
the total number of orders for the customer
the total price of all orders for the customer
the average quantity of items per order
Box 2: COUNT
The function should return the total number of orders for the customer.
Box 3: SUM
The function should return the total price of all orders for the customer.
Box 3. AVG
The function should return the average quantity of items per order.
Box 4: GROUP BY
Need to use GROUP BY for the aggregate functions.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186755.aspx

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
You work for an organization that monitors seismic activity around volcanos. You have a table named GroundSensors.
The table stored data collected from seismic sensors. It includes the columns describes in the following table:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3

The database also contains a scalar value function named NearestMountain that accepts a parameter of type
geography and returns the name of the mountain that is nearest to the sensor.
You need to create a query that shows the average of the normalized readings from the sensors for each mountain. The
query must meet the following requirements:
Return the average normalized readings named AverageReading.
Return the nearest mountain name named Mountain.
Do not return any other columns.
Exclude sensors for which no normalized reading exists.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use one part names to reference tables, columns and functions.
Do not use parentheses unless required.
Define column headings using the AS keyword.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3-2

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q3-3

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer:
1 SELECT avg (normalizedreading) as AverageReading, location as Mountain
2 FROM GroundSensors
3 WHERE normalizedreading is not null
Note: On line 1 change to AverageReading and change to Mountain.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains tables named Customer_CRMSystem and Customer_HRSystem. Both tables use
the following structure:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4

Customer_HRSystem

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-2

Records that contain null values for CustomerCode can be uniquely identified by CustomerName. You need to display a
Cartesian product, combining both tables.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-3

A. B. C.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q4-4

D. E. F. G. H.
Correct Answer: G
A cross join that does not have a WHERE clause produces the Cartesian product of the tables involved in the join. The
size of a Cartesian product result set is the number of rows in the first table multiplied by the number of rows in the
second table.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190690(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 5
You have a database that contains the following tables:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q5

You need to write a query that returns a list of all customers who have not placed orders. Which Transact-SQL
statement should you run?
A. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c INNER JOIN Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid
B. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers INTERSECTSELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
C. SELECTc.custid FROM Sales.Customers c LEFT OUTER Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid
D. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c LEFT OUTER JOIN Sales.Order oON c.custid = o.custid WHERE
orderid IS NULL
E. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers UNION ALL SELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
F. SELECT custid FROM Sales.Customers UNION SELECT custid FROM Sales.Orders
G. SELECT c.custid FROM Sales.Customers c RIGHT OUTER JOIN Sales.Orders o ON c.custid = o.custid
Correct Answer: D
Inner joins return rows only when there is at least one row from both tables that matches the join condition. Inner joins
eliminate the rows that do not match with a row from the other table. Outer joins, however, return all rows from at least
one of the tables or views mentioned in the FROM clause, as long as those rows meet any WHERE or HAVING search
conditions. All rows are retrieved from the left table referenced with a left outer join, and all rows from the right table
referenced in a right outer join. All rows from both tables are returned in a full outer join.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187518(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 6
SIMULATION
You create a table named Sales.Orders by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6

You need to write a query that removes orders from the table that have a Status of Canceled.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
use one-part column names and two-part table names
use single quotes around literal values
do not use functions
do not surround object names with square brackets
do not use variables
do not use aliases for column names and table names

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6-2

 Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q6-3

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer:
1. DELETE from sales.orders where status=\\’Canceled\\’
Note: On line 1 change calceled to Canceled
Example: Using the WHERE clause to delete a set of rows
The following example deletes all rows from the ProductCostHistory table in the AdventureWorks2012 database in
which the value in the StandardCost column is more than 1000.00.
DELETE FROM Production.ProductCostHistory
WHERE StandardCost > 1000.00;
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/delete-transact-sql

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You have a database that contains the following tables:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7

A delivery person enters an incorrect value for the CustomerID column in the Invoices table and enters the following text
in the ConfirmedReceivedBy column: “Package signed for by the owner Tim.”
You need to find the records in the Invoices table that contain the word Tim in the CustomerName field along with the
incorrectly entered row from the Sales.Invoice table.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7-2

Correct Answer:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q7-3

Box 1:SELECT CustomerID FROM Sales.Invoices
Box 2:INNER JOIN Sales.Customers.CustomerID = Sales.Invoices.CustomerID
Box 3:WHERE CustomerName LIKE \\’%tim%\\’
Box 4:WHERE ConfirmedReceiveBy IN (SELECT CustomerName FROM Sales.Customers)

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are creating indexes in a data warehouse.
You have a dimension table named Table1 that has 10,000 rows. The rows are used to generate several reports.
The reports join a column that is the primary key.
The execution plan contains bookmark lookups for Table1.
You discover that the reports run slower than expected.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to run the reports.
Solution: You create a nonclustered index on the primary key column that includes the bookmark lookup columns.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a table that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9

The Products table includes the data shown in the following table:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9-2

TotalUnitPrice is calculated by using the following formula:
TotalUnitPrice = UnitPrice * (UnitsInStock + UnitsOnOrder)
You need to ensure that the value returned for TotalUnitPrice for ProductB is equal to 600.00.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q9-3

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The NULL value in the UnitsOnOrder field would cause a runtime error.

QUESTION 10
You have a database named MyDb. You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q10

A value of 1 in the IsActive column indicates that a user is active.
You need to create a count for active users in each role. If a role has no active users. You must display a zero as the
active users count.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q10-2

 A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that contains two tables named Sales.Customers and Sales.Orders.
Sales.Customers has a foreign key relationship to a column named CustomerID in Sales.Orders.
You need to recommend a query that returns all the customers. The query must also return the number of orders that
each customer placed in 2016.
Solution: You recommend the following query:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q11

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/functions/count-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column
named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.
Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products
table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these
products.
You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing
for products that customers are permitted to order. Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q12

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Products with a price of $0.00 would also be increased.

QUESTION 13
SIMULATION
You have a database that contains the following tables.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q13

You need to create a query that lists the highest-performing salespersons based on the current year-to-date sales
period. The query must meet the following requirements:
Return the LastName and SalesYTD for the three salespersons with the highest year-to-date sales values.
Exclude salespersons that have no value for TerritoryID.
Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use the first letter of a table name as the table alias.
Use two-part column names.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.
Do not use implicit joins.
Use only single quotes for literal text.
Use aliases only if required.

Pmtrainingprep 70-761 exam questions-q13-2

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that
resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been
provided as well as below it.
1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD 2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s 3 ON p.PersonID =
s.SalesPersonID 4 WHERE territoryid is null 5 order by salesytd dsec
Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character
position.
Correct Answer: Please see
1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD
2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s
3 ON p.PersonID = s.SalesPersonID
4 WHERE territoryid is not null
5 order by salesytd desc
Note:
On line 4 add a not before null.
On line 5 change dsec to desc.

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CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Exam Practice Test Questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the
date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information
Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would
BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: AC
Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what
files were changed.
Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to
verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the
hash values differ, there is a difference between the two images.


QUESTION 2
An application present on the majority of an organization\\’s 1,000 systems is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack.
Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue?
A. Deploy custom HIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
B. Validate and deploy the appropriate patch.
C. Run the application in terminal services to reduce the threat landscape.
D. Deploy custom NIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks.
Correct Answer: B
If an application has a known issue (such as susceptibility to buffer overflow attacks) and a patch is released to resolve
the specific issue, then the best solution is always to deploy the patch. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or
process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are
created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into
adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through
programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow
attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the
attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user\\’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information.
Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor
programming practices supplied the vulnerability.

QUESTION 3
Given the following information about a company\\’s internal network:
User IP space: 192.168.1.0/24
Server IP space: 192.168.192.0/25
A security engineer has been told that there are rogue websites hosted outside of the proper server space, and those
websites need to be identified. Which of the following should the engineer do?
A. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.1.0/24
B. Use a port scanner on 192.168.1.0/24
C. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.1.0/24
D. Use a port scanner on 192.168.192.0/25
E. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.192.0/25
F. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.192.0/25
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password
compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the
following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe?
A. TOTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: D
The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use
codes.
HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm.
HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried
out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent
OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server.
Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP
tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for
strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP.
Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.

QUESTION 5
A security administrator must configure the database server shown below the comply with the four requirements listed.
Drag and drop the appropriate ACL that should be configured on the database server to its corresponding requirement.
Answer options may be used once or not at all.

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q5

Select and Place:

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing the controls in place to support the organization\\’s vulnerability
management program. The CISO finds patching and vulnerability scanning policies and procedures are in place.
However, the CISO is concerned the organization is siloed and is not maintaining awareness of new risks to the
organization. The CISO determines systems administrators need to participate in industry security events. Which of the
following is the CISO looking to improve?
A. Vendor diversification
B. System hardening standards
C. Bounty programs
D. Threat awareness
E. Vulnerability signatures
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device
to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a
security team member to look into the issue.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?
A. The OS version is not compatible
B. The OEM is prohibited
C. The device does not support FDE
D. The device is rooted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A new database application was added to a company\\’s hosted VM environment. Firewall ACLs were modified to allow
database users to access the server remotely. The company\\’s cloud security broker then identified abnormal from a
database user on-site. Upon further investigation, the security team noticed the user ran code on a VM that provided
access to the hypervisor directly and access to other sensitive data.
Which of the following should the security do to help mitigate future attacks within the VM environment? (Choose two.)
A. Install the appropriate patches.
B. Install perimeter NGFW.
C. Configure VM isolation.
D. Deprovision database VM.
E. Change the user\\’s access privileges.
F. Update virus definitions on all endpoints.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 9
A forensics analyst suspects that a breach has occurred. Security logs show the company\\’s OS patch system may be
compromised, and it is serving patches that contain a zero-day exploit and backdoor. The analyst extracts an
executable file from a packet capture of communication between a client computer and the patch server.
Which of the following should the analyst use to confirm this suspicion?
A. File size
B. Digital signature
C. Checksums
D. Anti-malware software
E. Sandboxing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been asked to develop a security dashboard with the relevant metrics. The
board of directors will use the dashboard to monitor and track the overall security posture of the organization. The CIO
produces a basic report containing both KPI and KRI data in two separate sections for the board to review.
Which of the following BEST meets the needs of the board?
A. KRI:- Compliance with regulations- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Severity of threats and
vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basisKPI:- Time to resolve open security
items- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- EDR coverage across the fleet- Threat landscape
rating
B. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Time to patch critical issues on a
monthly basis- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- % of
suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
C. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- % of suppliers with approved security control framework- Backlog of
unresolved security investigations- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with
regulations-Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
D. KPI:- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and
vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Threat landscape ratingKRI:- Time to resolve open security items- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- EDR coverage across the fleet- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
A security analyst is reviewing logs and discovers that a company-owned computer issued to an employee is generating
many alerts and analyst continues to review the log events and discovers that a non-company-owned device from a
different, unknown IP address is general same events. The analyst informs the manager of these finding, and the
manager explains that these activities are already known and . . . ongoing simulation. Given this scenario, which of the
following roles are the analyst, the employee, and the manager fillings?
A. The analyst is red team The employee is blue team The manager is white team
B. The analyst is white team The employee is red team The manager is blue team
C. The analyst is red team The employee is white team The manager is blue team
D. The analyst is blue team The employee is red team The manager is white team
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An online bank has contracted with a consultant to perform a security assessment of the bank\\’s web portal. The
consultant notices the login page is linked from the main page with HTTPS, but when the URL is changed to HTTP, the
browser is automatically redirected back to the HTTPS site. Which of the following is a concern for the consultant, and
how can it be mitigated?
A. XSS could be used to inject code into the login page during the redirect to the HTTPS site. The consultant should
implement a WAF to prevent this.
B. The consultant is concerned the site is using an older version of the SSL 3.0 protocol that is vulnerable to a variety of
attacks. Upgrading the site to TLS 1.0 would mitigate this issue.
C. The HTTP traffic is vulnerable to network sniffing, which could disclose usernames and passwords to an attacker.
The consultant should recommend disabling HTTP on the web server.
D. A successful MITM attack Could intercept the redirect and use sslstrip to decrypt further HTTPS traffic. Implementing
HSTS on the web server would prevent this.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
A hospital uses a legacy electronic medical record system that requires multicast for traffic between the application
servers and databases on virtual hosts that support segments of the application. Following a switch upgrade, the
electronic medical record is unavailable despite physical connectivity between the hypervisor and the storage being in
place. The network team must enable multicast traffic to restore access to the electronic medical record. The ISM states
that the network team must reduce the footprint of multicast traffic on the network.

Pmtrainingprep CAS-003 exam questions-q13

Using the above information, on which VLANs should multicast be enabled?
A. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400
B. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN700
C. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700
D. VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700
Correct Answer: D

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NetApp NS0-159 Exam Practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
You want to configure Active Directory authentication for a cluster. You have performed the following actions:
-created the SVM,
-joined the SVM to Active Directory,

created the domain tunnel.
You attempt to log in to the cluster as an Active Directory user but access is denied.
How would you solve this problem?
A.
Create a custom role that allow Active Directory tunneling.
B.
Create a cluster user account with the same username and password as the Active Directory user.
C.
Create an Active Directory user account on the cluster.
D.
Create a cluster user account within Active Directory.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You want to enable jumbo frames for iSCSI traffic on your cluster. To satisfy this requirement, what would you modify on
the cluster?
A. broadcast domains
B. igroups
C. iSCSI LIFs
D. network ports
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a 4-node cluster with 2x AFF A300 and 2x FAS8200 controllers. One of the AFF A300 controllers
has a 50 TB FlexVol volume that needs an immediate read-write copy for standalone testing on one of the FAS8200
controllers.
Which two commands combined accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. volume rehost
B. volume clone create
C. volume move
D. volume clone split
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Which two objects are supported in a FlexVol volume? (Choose two.)
A. gtree
B. LUN
C. RAID group
D. aggregate
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Your company is merging with another company that has overlapping IP addresses from the same subnet range. You
need to connect your ONTAP 9.3 cluster to the overlapping network.
In this scenario, which ONTAP networking feature allows connectivity without IP address conflicts?
A. VLAN
B. subnet
C. broadcast domain
D. IPspace
Correct Answer: D

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NetApp NS0-182 Exam Practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to expand a 10-node AFF A700s NAS cluster running with Cisco Nexus 3132Q-V cluster interconnect
switches using new nodes. In this scenario, what is the maximum number of nodes to be added into this cluster?
A. 24
B. 2
C. 12
D. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer has a standard request for information regarding the installation, configuration, usage, and maintenance of
his NetApp equipment.
What is the appropriate priority level to use when he opens a case?
A. P2
B. P1
C. P4
D. P3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are asked to install an AFF A700 with two DS224C shelves fully populated. When you arrive, the customer asks
you to install an additional shelf. Which shelf would you add to this cluster?
A. a DS224C shelf fully populated with SAS drives
B. a DS224C shelf fully populated with SATA drives
C. a DS2246 shelf fully populated with SSD drives
D. a DS4486 shelf fully populated with SATA drives
Correct Answer: C
 

QUESTION 4
You have to disable a switch that is connected to a port on your FAS2750. You notice that the LIFs that are associated
with this port are migrated to a port that is not expected. In this scenario, what would cause this behavior?
A. The network port is configured incorrectly.
B. The broadcast domain is configured incorrectly.
C. There are no online ports within the same failover group.
D. The network failover port is not licensed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You have just added a new DS4246 shelf with 24 x 10 TB SATA HDDs to a single FAS2650 node as the first SATA
shelf. You must keep two SATA spare disks on the shelf. What is the maximum number of SATA data disks available in
this scenario?
A. 19
B. 16
C. 22
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

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NetApp NS0-193 Exam Practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button.

Janintraining NS0-193 exam questions-q1

You created an SVM and want to mount volume “data01” from a Windows client with the 10.10.10.50 IP address over
NFSv3. However, when you are trying to mount, you are receiving a “permission denied” error. Referring to the exhibit,
what caused the error?
A. The security style must use NTFS when using Windows NFS.
B. The export policy is missing the client IP.
C. The root volume has the wrong export policy.
D. The NFS service is not started.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.

Janintraining NS0-193 exam questions-q2

Your database administrator is complaining of slow read and write performance.
Referring to the exhibit, which action would be taken to improve performance for both reads and writes?
A. Replace the node\\’s NVRAM.
B. Move the workload to an SSD aggregate.
C. Apply a QoS minimum policy to the csdata-wid1234 workload.
D. Balance the network load among the cluster nodes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to perform a patch upgrade on their ONTAP 9.5 HA cluster. What are two ways to accomplish
this task? (Choose two.)
A. Use the netboot procedure.
B. Use the automated nondisruptive upgrade (ANDU) process in the Cluster CLI.
C. Use the automated nondisruptive upgrade (ANDU) process from OnCommand System Manager.
D. Use the storage disk updatefirmware command.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-ug-rdg%2FGUID-590B351FBDDF-41B5-B0F1-391BEC7542E1.html

QUESTION 4
During deployment of an AFF A700 system, the administrator wants to make efficient use of disk space. Which
partitioning type would achieve this goal?
A. root-data-data
B. GUID Partition Table (GPT)
C. whole disk
D. primary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A client is attempting to mount a UNIX security style volume using NFSv4. The client receives the “permission denied”
message, but mounting NFSv3 works fine. You have confirmed both NFSv4 and NFSv3 are allowed in the export
policy.
Which statement describes this behavior?
A. Extended groups for AUTH_SYS are enabled.
B. NFSv4 takes file permissions into account when mounting.
C. There is no proper name-mapping rule for the user mounting.
D. The export policy applied to the volume has superuser set to none.
Correct Answer: A

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NetApp NS0-002 Exam Practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
Which ONTAP technology is the foundation for SnapMirror?
A. modifiers
B. clones
C. snapshots
D. disks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the primary interface to manage a NetApp HCI cluster?
A. VMware vCenter
B. OnCommand System Manager
C. OnCommand Unfired Manager
D. VMware Horizon
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
OnCommand Cloud Manager would be used to manage which three NetApp storage resources? (Choose three.)
A. NetApp All Flash FAS (AFF)
B. NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP
C. NetApp StorageGRID
D. NetApp Private Storage (NPS)
E. NetApp HCI
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4
Which two hypervisors are supported for use with ONTAP Select? (Choose two.)
A. Hyper-V
B. Solaris
C. KVM
D. ESXi
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
What is a group of one or more containers in a Kubernetes cluster?
A. helm
B. pilot
C. node
D. pod
Correct Answer: D

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NetApp NS0-509 Exam Practice questions 1-5

QUESTION 1
What does the space allocation argument in a lun create command do?
A. It thick provisions the LUN.
B. It only disables space reclamation (or the LUN.
C. It thin provisions the LUN,
D. It enables or disables space reclamation for the LUN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A customer experiences intermittent connectivity problems between an ESXi server and FC LUNs in an SVM. The
customer has examined the nodes hosting the LUNs and both the disk and CPU performance are below 50% utilization.
The customer examined the switch ports connected to the storage array, and they ate also below 50% utilization. Which
two steps would you perform next in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the host is using SnapDrive.
B. Verify that the host Ethernet interfaces are using jumbo frames.
C. Verify that the host recommended settings were applied by Virtual Storage Console.
D. Verify that the HBA queue depth is set properly.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Which tool collects configuration data from hosts and switches to assist in evaluating a qualified configuration?
A. System Manager
B. sysstat. command
C. SnapCenter
D. OneCollect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which NetApp tool views automated, schedule configuration, and performance data for a customer\\’s SAN from a Web
browser?
A. Virtual Storage Console
B. OnCommand Workflow Analyzer
C. Config Advisor
D. Active 1Q
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to move a LUN non-disruptively from an AFF A200 HA pair to an AFF A700 HA pair within the same 4-node
cluster using the steps shown below.
1.
Scan the host OS to discover all paths to the LUN.
2.
Execute the lun move command to move the LUN to the AFF A/00 HA pair.
3.
Remove the AFF A200 HA pair from the reporting-nodes list.
4.
Add the AFF A700 HA pair to the reporting-nodes list. What is the correct sequence in performing, these steps?
A. 1, 2, 3. 4
B. 4. 1, 2, 3
C. 4, 3. 2. 1 D. 3, 2, 1,4
Correct Answer: B

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Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

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Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)

  • Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
  • Understand AI and mixed reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
  • Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)
  • Understand Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/certification-exams#participating-in-beta-exams

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Latest Microsoft mb-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A university is implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement.
You need to purchase the minimum number of full licenses.
How many licenses should you purchase?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft Azure services are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Active Directory
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Azure Machine Learning
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Microsoft Power BI
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
You run Dynamics 365 on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. You migrate all managed solutions
and data to Dynamics 365 online and decommission all on-premises infrastructure.
You need to determine which type of cloud service model is being used.
Which type of cloud service model is being used?
A. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. hybrid deployment
D. software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You review your current open cases in Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. When should you use parent/child cases?
A. for cases for a customer who left a company and now works for a different company
B. for cases from the same company
C. for cases for two different customers with two different issues
D. for cases for two different companies with the same company name
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are investigating the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Lifecycle Services (LCS).
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q5-2

 
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You need to choose the appropriate type of Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement solution for each scenario.
Which solution types should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct scenarios. Each
solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q6
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q6-2
 
QUESTION 7
A risk-averse company wants to implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to recommend the appropriate software release cycle.
Which software release should you recommend?
A. targeted release (Preview)
B. first release (Production)
C. standard release
D. finance and operations team
E. feature teams
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-inoffice-365?view=o365-worldwide
 
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
What are the benefits of using cloud computing? To answer, drag the appropriate release types to the correct benefits.
Each release type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q8
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q8-2
 
QUESTION 9
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization effectively track,
manage, and deliver project-based services. Which application should you select?
A. Customer Service
B. Field Service
C. Project Service automation
D. Sales
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/project-service/overview
 
QUESTION 10
You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. You need to create solution components
using customization tools.
Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. audit logs
B. sitemap
C. team
D. business unit
E. global option sets
Correct Answer: BE
 
QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q11
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q11-2
 
QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q12
 
Correct Answer:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q12-2
 

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 Related MB-300 exams: 3 related exams

Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations

  • Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
  • Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
  • Perform data migration (15-20%)
  • Validate and support the solution (15-20%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-300

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Share Latest MB-300 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You are a project manager using Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Lifecycle Services (LCS).
You must be able to identify and publish gaps within your normal delivery schedule.
You need to determine whether your organization has the minimum requirements in place to use Business Process
Modeler (BPM).
Which prerequisites are required to use Business Process Modeler? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/bpmoverview

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator.
Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system.
You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of
action for granting access.
What should you do?
A. Security duty assignments report
B. Security role access report
C. Security development tool
D. Security diagnostics
E. Maintenance mode
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
You use Lifecycle Services (LCS) for your deployment. The company currently has multiple methodologies assigned to
various projects. One methodology is incorrectly assigned and must be changed. You need to change the methodology
on an existing project.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is
worth one point.
A. Change methodology
B. Project settings
C. Manage methodologies
D. Edit methodology
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You develop a new purchasing solution for a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You must provide functional test passes for the purchasing solution.
You need to plan a production environment test flow for the purchasing solution.
What three steps should you verify in the functional passes of the purchasing solution?
A. Purchase orders are generated
B. Item requirements are present
C. Production order processing occurs
D. Production orders are generated
E. The item master is designed and released to a legal entity
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
You are tasked with setting up Case management in the Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations deployment for your
organization.
Your organization must use cases to track defect and enhancement reports for products, so that engineers can improve
products over time. Only appropriate employees within the organization should have access to cases and related
information.
Call enter employees create thousands of service cases and ensure that the proper resources are allocated for each
service.
Service department employees fix cases created by the call center and create cases for defects and enhancement
suggestion when they identify them.
Engineers review the cases from the service department while planning and designing the next version. You need to
configure the tool to enable tracking of service cases and product defects and enhancements. Which Case
management settings should you choose for each category or categories? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
A user reports that the system is getting gradually slower.
You need to identify the user\\’s processes and slow-running queries and rebuild any fragmented indexes.
Which features should you use? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q6-2

QUESTION 7
During the implementation planning process, a company decides to migrate various functional data from its legacy
systems. These include accounting data, sales data, and purchasing data.
Some functional data elements reference data stored in other tables.
You need to ensure that data types and data elements are imported in the correct order.
In what order should you perform the data migration? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for
two weeks.
You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000.
What should you do?
A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module
B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All
C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are a system administrator using Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You are responsible for troubleshooting workflows.
You need to determine where workflows are failing based on error messages.
Which runtime is raising the error when the following activity and error occurs? To answer, select the appropriate
runtime in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q9-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/workflow-system-architecture

QUESTION 10
You work with a systems administrator for Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
The system has been configured to prompt users for how they want to send emails based on the given scenario they
are encountering. In certain situations, they will want to generate an email to forward to an account executive who
doesn’t
have access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Other times, the emails should be either sent as an
attachment to a user email or through a generic no reply email.
You need to determine which configuration to provide to the file system administrator for the given scenario.
Which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
You set up Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
Your organization will use email with the application.
You need to ensure that email will be sent using typical secure settings.
What setting must be set as specified?
A. In-place hold and Litigation hold are enabled.
B. In-place eDiscovery is enabled,
C. The SMTP port field is set to 587.
D. Retention policies are enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator for your company.
The company sets up a new legal entity and wants to update the main page of the entity with a large banner containing
the company logo.
You need to configure the new legal entity to display this.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q12-2

 
QUESTION 13
A company plans to use record templates in its implementation.
You need to set up and use record templates.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence to create the record templates? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q13
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q13-2
 

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Candidates for this exam analyze the requirements for AI solutions, recommend appropriate tools and technologies, and implements solutions that meet scalability and performance requirements.

Candidates translate the vision from solution architects and work with data scientists, data engineers, IoT specialists, and AI developers to build complete end-to-end solutions. Candidates design and implement AI apps and agents that use Microsoft Azure Cognitive Services and Azure Bot Service. Candidates can recommend solutions that use open source technologies.

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  • Design solutions that use Cognitive Services
  • Design solutions that implement the Bot Framework
  • Design the computer infrastructure to support a solution
  • Design for data governance, compliance, integrity, and security

Implement and monitor AI solutions (25-30%)

  • Implement an AI workflow
  • Integrate AI services with solution components
  • Monitor and evaluate the AI environment

Latest effective Microsoft other Certification AI-100 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data.
On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the data by using Azure Machine Learning models. Once an anomaly
is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You expose a Machine Learning model as an Azure web service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies: temporary and persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning-anomaly-detection

QUESTION 2
You are designing an AI solution that will use IoT devices to gather data from conference attendees, and then later
analyze the data. The IoT devices will connect to an Azure IoT hub.
You need to design a solution to anonymize the data before the data is sent to the IoT hub.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-1

Step 1: Create a storage container
ASA Edge jobs run in containers deployed to Azure IoT Edge devices.
Step 2: Create an Azure Stream Analytics Edge Job
Azure Stream Analytics (ASA) on IoT Edge empowers developers to deploy near-real-time analytical intelligence closer
to IoT devices so that they can unlock the full value of device-generated data.
Scenario overview:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your company has 1,000 AI developers who are responsible for provisioning environments in Azure. You need to
control the type, size, and location of the resources that the developers can provision. What should you use?
A. Azure Key Vault
B. Azure service principals
C. Azure managed identities
D. Azure Security Center
E. Azure Policy
Correct Answer: B
When an application needs access to deploy or configure resources through Azure Resource Manager in Azure Stack,
you create a service principal, which is a credential for your application. You can then delegate only the necessary
permissions to that service principal.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-create-service-principals

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You create a managed identity for AKS, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 5
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5-1

Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (a little piece of code) that can be used for. g. event-driven
applications.
The general rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event-driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high-value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when
you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection
to the AKS node.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

QUESTION 7
You have thousands of images that contain text.
You need to process the text from the images to a machine-readable character stream.
Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?
A. the Image Moderation API
B. Text Analytics
C. Translator Text
D. Computer Vision
Correct Answer: D
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract them
recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Use Content Moderator\\’s machine-assisted image moderation and human-in-the-loop Review tool to moderate
images for adult and racy content. Scan images for text content and extract that text, and detect faces. You can match
images against custom lists, and take further action.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

QUESTION 8
Your company has a data team of Transact-SQL experts.
You plan to ingest data from multiple sources into Azure Event Hubs.
You need to recommend which technology the data team should use to move and query data from Event Hubs to Azure
Storage. The solution must leverage the data team\\’s existing skills.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. Azure Event Grid
C. Apache Kafka streams
D. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: B
Event Hubs Capture is the easiest way to automatically deliver streamed data in Event Hubs to an Azure Blob storage
or Azure Data Lake store. You can subsequently process and deliver the data to any other storage destinations of your
choice, such as SQL Data Warehouse or Cosmos DB.
You to capture data from your event hub into a SQL data warehouse by using an Azure function triggered by an event
grid.
Example:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q8

First, you create an event hub with the Capture feature enabled and set Azure blob storage as the destination. Data
generated by wind turbine generator is streamed into the event hub and is automatically captured into Azure Storage
as
Avro files.
Next, you create an Azure Event Grid subscription with the Event Hubs namespace as its source and the Azure
Function endpoint as its destination. Whenever a new Avro file is delivered to the Azure Storage blob by the Event Hubs
Capture
feature, Event Grid notifies the Azure Function with the blob URI. The Function then migrates data from the blob to a
SQL data warehouse.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/store-captured-data-data-warehouse

QUESTION 9
Your company has factories in 10 countries. Each factory contains several thousand IoT devices.
The devices present status and trending data on a dashboard.
You need to ingest the data from the IoT devices into a data warehouse.
Which two Microsoft Azure technologies should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Stream Analytics
B. Azure Data Factory
C. an Azure HDInsight cluster
D. Azure Batch
E. Azure Data Lake
Correct Answer: CE
With Azure Data Lake Store (ADLS) serving as the hyper-scale storage layer and HDInsight serving as the Hadoop-
based compute engine services. It can be used for prepping large amounts of data for insertion into a Data Warehouse
References: https://www.blue-granite.com/blog/azure-data-lake-analytics-holds-a-unique-spot-in-the-modern-data-architecture

QUESTION 10
You are configuring data persistence for a Microsoft Bot Framework application. The application requires a structured
NoSQL cloud data store.
You need to identify a storage solution for the application. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you identify?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure HDInsight
D. Azure Table storage
Correct Answer: D
Table Storage is a NoSQL key-value store for rapid development using massive semi-structured datasets
You can develop applications on Cosmos DB using popular NoSQL APIs.
Both services have a different scenario and pricing model.
While Azure Storage Tables is aimed at high capacity on a single region (optional secondary read-only region but no
failover), indexing by PK/RK and storage-optimized pricing; Azure Cosmos DB Tables aims for high throughput (single-
digit
millisecond latency), global distribution (multiple failovers), SLA-backed predictive performance with automatic indexing
of each attribute/property and a pricing model focused on throughput.
References:
https://db-engines.com/en/system/Microsoft+Azure+Cosmos+DB%3BMicrosoft+Azure+Table+Storage

QUESTION 11
You are designing an AI solution that must meet the following processing requirements:
Use a parallel processing framework that supports the in-memory processing of high volumes of data.
Use in-memory caching and a columnar storage engine for Apache Hive queries.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Box 1: Apache Spark
Apache Spark is a parallel processing framework that supports in-memory processing to boost the performance of big-
data analytic applications. Apache Spark in Azure HDInsight is the Microsoft implementation of Apache Spark in the
cloud.
Box 2: Interactive Query
Interactive Query provides In-memory caching and improved columnar storage engine for Hive queries.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/interactive-query/apache-interactive-query-get-started

QUESTION 12
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using
Azure Machine Learning algorithms.
The developers of the application use a mix of Windows- and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to
shared GitHub repositories.
You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application.
What is the best tool to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B. Azure Notebooks
C. Azure Machine Learning Studio
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution that will ingest data from an Azure IoT Edge device, preprocess the data in Azure Machine
Learning, and then move the data to Azure HDInsight for further processing.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Box 1: Export Data The Export data to Hive option in the Export Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. This
option is useful when you are working with very large datasets, and want to save your machine learning experiment data
to a Hadoop cluster or HDInsight distributed storage. Box 2: Apache Hive Apache Hive is a data warehouse system for
Apache Hadoop. Hive enables data summarization, querying, and analysis of data. Hive queries are written in HiveQL,
which is a query language similar to SQL. Box 3: Azure Data Lake Default storage for the HDFS file system of
HDInsight clusters can be associated with either an Azure Storage account or an Azure Data Lake Storage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-to-hive-query
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/hdinsight-use-hive

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