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Exam MB-900: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational knowledge of Microsoft Dynamics 365, Power Platform applications, and the cloud computing model. 

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Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (beta)

  • Identify Microsoft platform components for Dynamics 365 (30-35%)
  • Understand AI and mixed reality for Dynamics 365 (10-15%)
  • Understand model-driven apps (25-30%)
  • Understand Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations apps (25-30%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/certification-exams#participating-in-beta-exams

Updated: Mar 03, 2020 Pass4itsure MB-901 pdf dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/mb-901.html

Latest Microsoft mb-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A university is implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement.
You need to purchase the minimum number of full licenses.
How many licenses should you purchase?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft Azure services are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Active Directory
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Azure Machine Learning
D. Microsoft Flow
E. Microsoft Power BI
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
You run Dynamics 365 on-premises. Self-hosting costs are becoming prohibitive. You migrate all managed solutions
and data to Dynamics 365 online and decommission all on-premises infrastructure.
You need to determine which type of cloud service model is being used.
Which type of cloud service model is being used?
A. infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
B. platform as a service (PaaS)
C. hybrid deployment
D. software as a service (SaaS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You review your current open cases in Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. When should you use parent/child cases?
A. for cases for a customer who left a company and now works for a different company
B. for cases from the same company
C. for cases for two different customers with two different issues
D. for cases for two different companies with the same company name
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are investigating the capabilities of Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations Lifecycle Services (LCS).
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q5-2

 
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You need to choose the appropriate type of Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement solution for each scenario.
Which solution types should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct scenarios. Each
solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q6
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q6-2
 
QUESTION 7
A risk-averse company wants to implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You need to recommend the appropriate software release cycle.
Which software release should you recommend?
A. targeted release (Preview)
B. first release (Production)
C. standard release
D. finance and operations team
E. feature teams
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-inoffice-365?view=o365-worldwide
 
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
What are the benefits of using cloud computing? To answer, drag the appropriate release types to the correct benefits.
Each release type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes
or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q8
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q8-2
 
QUESTION 9
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization effectively track,
manage, and deliver project-based services. Which application should you select?
A. Customer Service
B. Field Service
C. Project Service automation
D. Sales
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/project-service/overview
 
QUESTION 10
You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. You need to create solution components
using customization tools.
Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. audit logs
B. sitemap
C. team
D. business unit
E. global option sets
Correct Answer: BE
 
QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You need to determine whether to deploy Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations on-premises or in the cloud.
Which capabilities are handled by which deployment models? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q11
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q11-2
 
QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes is the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q12
 
Correct Answer:
 
Pass4itsure Microsoft mb-900 exam questions q12-2
 

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 Related MB-300 exams: 3 related exams

Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations

  • Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
  • Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
  • Perform data migration (15-20%)
  • Validate and support the solution (15-20%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-300

Exam MB-310: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Financepass4itsure mb-310 exam dumps
Exam MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturingpass4itsure mb-320 exam dumps
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QUESTION 1
You are a project manager using Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Lifecycle Services (LCS).
You must be able to identify and publish gaps within your normal delivery schedule.
You need to determine whether your organization has the minimum requirements in place to use Business Process
Modeler (BPM).
Which prerequisites are required to use Business Process Modeler? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/bpmoverview

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator.
Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system.
You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of
action for granting access.
What should you do?
A. Security duty assignments report
B. Security role access report
C. Security development tool
D. Security diagnostics
E. Maintenance mode
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
You use Lifecycle Services (LCS) for your deployment. The company currently has multiple methodologies assigned to
various projects. One methodology is incorrectly assigned and must be changed. You need to change the methodology
on an existing project.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is
worth one point.
A. Change methodology
B. Project settings
C. Manage methodologies
D. Edit methodology
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You develop a new purchasing solution for a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment.
You must provide functional test passes for the purchasing solution.
You need to plan a production environment test flow for the purchasing solution.
What three steps should you verify in the functional passes of the purchasing solution?
A. Purchase orders are generated
B. Item requirements are present
C. Production order processing occurs
D. Production orders are generated
E. The item master is designed and released to a legal entity
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
You are tasked with setting up Case management in the Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations deployment for your
organization.
Your organization must use cases to track defect and enhancement reports for products, so that engineers can improve
products over time. Only appropriate employees within the organization should have access to cases and related
information.
Call enter employees create thousands of service cases and ensure that the proper resources are allocated for each
service.
Service department employees fix cases created by the call center and create cases for defects and enhancement
suggestion when they identify them.
Engineers review the cases from the service department while planning and designing the next version. You need to
configure the tool to enable tracking of service cases and product defects and enhancements. Which Case
management settings should you choose for each category or categories? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator.
A user reports that the system is getting gradually slower.
You need to identify the user\\’s processes and slow-running queries and rebuild any fragmented indexes.
Which features should you use? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q6-2

QUESTION 7
During the implementation planning process, a company decides to migrate various functional data from its legacy
systems. These include accounting data, sales data, and purchasing data.
Some functional data elements reference data stored in other tables.
You need to ensure that data types and data elements are imported in the correct order.
In what order should you perform the data migration? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for
two weeks.
You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000.
What should you do?
A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module
B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All
C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are a system administrator using Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
You are responsible for troubleshooting workflows.
You need to determine where workflows are failing based on error messages.
Which runtime is raising the error when the following activity and error occurs? To answer, select the appropriate
runtime in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q9-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/workflow-system-architecture

QUESTION 10
You work with a systems administrator for Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
The system has been configured to prompt users for how they want to send emails based on the given scenario they
are encountering. In certain situations, they will want to generate an email to forward to an account executive who
doesn’t
have access to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Other times, the emails should be either sent as an
attachment to a user email or through a generic no reply email.
You need to determine which configuration to provide to the file system administrator for the given scenario.
Which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
You set up Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.
Your organization will use email with the application.
You need to ensure that email will be sent using typical secure settings.
What setting must be set as specified?
A. In-place hold and Litigation hold are enabled.
B. In-place eDiscovery is enabled,
C. The SMTP port field is set to 587.
D. Retention policies are enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator for your company.
The company sets up a new legal entity and wants to update the main page of the entity with a large banner containing
the company logo.
You need to configure the new legal entity to display this.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q12-2

 
QUESTION 13
A company plans to use record templates in its implementation.
You need to set up and use record templates.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence to create the record templates? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q13
Correct Answer:
Pass4itsure Microsoft MB-300 exam questions q13-2
 

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QUESTION 1
In an effort to be proactive, an analyst has run an assessment against a sample workstation before auditors visit next
month. The scan results are as follows:

Pass4itsure CompTIA cs0-001 exam questions q1

Based on the output of the scan, which of the following is the BEST answer?
A. Failed credentialed scan
B. Failed compliance check
C. Successful sensitivity level check
D. Failed asset inventory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Using a heuristic system to detect an anomaly in a computer\\’s baseline, a system administrator was able to detect an
attack even though the company signature based IDS and antivirus did not detect it. Further analysis revealed that the
attacker had downloaded an executable file onto the company PC from the USB port, and executed it to trigger a
privilege escalation flaw. Which of the following attacks has MOST likely occurred?
A. Cookie stealing
B. Zero-day
C. Directory traversal
D. XML injection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company has decided to process credit card transactions directly. Which of the following would meet the requirements
for scanning this type of data?
A. Quarterly
B. Yearly
C. Bi-annually
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just
announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution
requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security
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A. Run a penetration test on the installed agent.
B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C. Require through guides for administrator and users.
D. Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
During a recent audit, there were a lot of findings similar to and including the following:

Pass4itsure CompTIA cs0-001 exam questions q5

Which of the following would be the BEST way to remediate these findings and minimize similar findings in the future?
A. Use an automated patch management solution.
B. Remove the affected software programs from the servers.
C. Run Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer on all of the servers.
D. Schedule regular vulnerability scans for all servers on the network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting
department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the
company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of
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A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts
B. Disable the user accounts
C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application
D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration
E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Considering confidentiality and integrity, which of the following make servers more secure than desktops? (Select
THREE).
A. VLANs
B. OS
C. Trained operators
D. Physical access restriction
E. Processing power
F. Hard drive capacity
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing log data and sees the output below:

Pass4itsure CompTIA cs0-001 exam questions q8

Which of the following technologies MOST likely generated this log?
A. Stateful inspection firewall
B. Network-based intrusion detection system
C. Web application firewall
D. Host-based intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A cybersecurity analyst is currently investigating a server outage. The analyst has discovered the following value was
entered for the username: 0xbfff601a. Which of the following attacks may be occurring?
A. Buffer overflow attack
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Smurf attack
D. Format string attack
E. Denial of service attack
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Weeks before a proposed merger is scheduled for completion, a security analyst has noticed unusual traffic patterns on
a file server that contains financial information. Routine scans are not detecting the signature of any known exploits or
malware. The following entry is seen in the ftp server logs:
tftp -I 10.1.1.1 GET fourthquarterreport.xls
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Continue to monitor the situation using tools to scan for known exploits.
B. Implement an ACL on the perimeter firewall to prevent data exfiltration.
C. Follow the incident response procedure associate with the loss of business critical data.
D. Determine if any credit card information is contained on the server containing the financials.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked the security analyst to examine abnormally high processor
utilization on a key server. The output below is from the company\\’s research and development (RandD) server.

Pass4itsure CompTIA cs0-001 exam questions q11

Which of the following actions should the security analyst take FIRST?
A. Initiate an investigation B. Isolate the RandD server
C. Reimage the server
D. Determine availability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst develops a regular expression to find data within traffic that will alarm on a hit.

Pass4itsure CompTIA cs0-001 exam questions q12

The SIEM alarms on seeing this data in cleartext between the web server and the database server.

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Which of the following types of data would the analyst MOST likely to be concerned with, and to which type of data
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A. Credit card numbers that are PCI
B. Social security numbers that are PHI
C. Credit card numbers that are PII
D. Social security numbers that are PII
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An analyst wants to use a command line tool to identify open ports and running services on a host along with the
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B. Qualys
C. netstat
D. nmap
E. ping
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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco UC videophones can be registered to Spark?
A. 8846
B. 7961
C. 8945
D. 9971
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is a unique feature of Expressway?
A. Advanced video routing on video-only networks.
B. Persistent content available to room participants.
C. Message, meet and calling for cloud-based solutions.
D. Support of unified communications with contact center.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Where are license keys entered in TMS?
A. Diagnostics
B. Administrative Settings
C. General Settings
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/tms/license_info/78-19878-01_Cisco_TMS_licenses_keys.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which is included in an endpoint\\’s registration request message sent to a SIP Server?
A. E.164 Address
B. Endpoint IP Address
C. E.164 URI
D. SIP Server IP address
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 50
D. 26
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of Expressways that can be clustered?
A. 9
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?
A. SDKs specify how software components should interact
B. APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C. SDKs can be used without APIs.
D. APIs can be used without SDKs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
TMS is a virtual application that relies on what Operating System?
A. Oracle
B. MS Access
C. Linux Ubuntu
D. Windows Server
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/telepresence-management-suitetms/data_sheet_c78-707529.html TMS is based on SQL database not Oracle running on Windows server.

QUESTION 9
Which system uses intelligent Audio to cancel out background noise?
A. Spark
B. Jabber
C. DX80
D. DX7O
Correct Answer: C
https://newsroom.cisco.com/press-release-content?articleId=1421621

QUESTION 10
Which conferencing solution is designed for highly scalable meetings, training and events?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco WebEx
C. Spark
D. TelePresence Server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?
A. TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B. TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C. TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D. TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What is a primary purpose of the Traversal Subzone?
A. To enable firewall traversal between public and private endpoints.
B. To provide for Mobile Remote Access for endpoints outside the network.
C. To apply bandwidth restrictions on traversal calls.
D. To encrypt traversal calls to neighbored Expressways.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/admin_guide/Cisco_VCS_Administrator_Guide_X7-2.pdf

QUESTION 13
What is the primary protocol used by TMS to communicate with endpoints and infrastructure?
A. SNMP
B. SIP
C. BFCP
D. H.373
Correct Answer: A
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pass4itsure 210-250 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
What is the best source of data for analysis of a system that is potentially compromised by a rootkit?
A. checking for running processes using command line tools on the system
B. using static binaries in a trusted toolset imported to the machine to check running processes
C. reviewing active network connections with netstat or nbtstat
D. taking a forensic image of the machine
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What statement best describes the process that can be used to edit the windows registry?
A. You cannot manually edit the registry.
B. Run the regedit command from the command line.
C. Double-click the task manager icon
D. Expand regedit from the system tray and edit the registry from the GUI.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is an advantage of a system-generated password?
A. It is easy to remember.
B. It complies with the organization\\’s password policy
C. It is very long.
D. It includes numbers and letters.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols are used for email? (Choose two.)
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 6
In Linux what does the [email protected]:~$ sudo ifconfig ens160 192.168.7.73 command do?
A. shows the details of the ens160 interface
B. nothing in Linux
C. configures the ip address on the ens160 interface
D. removes the interface ens160 from the system
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
In most Linux systems, where is the default location for the syslog or rsyslog configuration file?
A. in the /etc directory
B. in the /log/var directory
C. in the /etc/log directory
D. in the /var/log directory
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would give an IPS the most trouble?
A. Jumbo packets
B. Encryption
C. Throughput
D. Updates
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which two languages are commonly used in client scripting? (Choose two.)
A. JavaScript
B. VBScript
C. Perl
D. PHP
E. Python
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
What phase of the TCP communication process is attacked during a TCP SYN flood attack?
A. three-way handshake
B. connection established
C. connection closed
D. connection reset
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are true statements regarding vulnerability scanners and penetration assessments? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Vulnerability scanners can crash a device; penetration assessments do not.
B. Vulnerability scanners usually work with known vulnerabilities.
C. Penetration assessment is typically fully automated.
D. Vulnerability scanners can work in active mode and passive mode.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Chain of custody, in legal contexts, refers to the chronological documentation or paper trail, showing the seizure,
custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. What five of the following types of
information are contained in chain of custody documentation? (Choose five.)
A. Who was the attacker?
B. What is the evidence?
C. What attack method was used?
D. What method was used to collect the evidence?
E. When was the evidence collected?
F. Who handled the evidence and why did that person need to handle the evidence?
G. What software was used to commit the attack?
H. Where is the evidence permanently stored?
I. Why did the attack happen?
Correct Answer: BDEFH


QUESTION 13
What is a certificate revocation list (CRL)?
A. A list of root certificates of CA servers that can revoke certificates.
B. A list of certificates, based on their serial numbers, that had initially been issued by a CA but have not been revoked
and are trusted.
C. A list of certificates, based on their serial numbers, that had initially been issued by a CA but have since been
revoked and as a result should not be trusted.
D. A list of serial numbers of CA servers that can participate in a certificate revocation process.
Correct Answer: C

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The latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
What is the lowest combination of ASA model and license providing 1 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces?
A. ASA 5505 with failover license option
B. ASA 5510 Security+ license option
C. ASA 5520 with any license option
D. ASA 5540 with AnyConnect Essentials License option
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which option is a different type of secondary VLAN?
A. Transparent
B. Promiscuous
C. Virtual
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is the best description of a unified ACL on a Cisco Firewall
A. An Ipv4 ACL with Ipv4 support
B. An ACL the support EtherType in additional Ipv6
C. An ACL with both Ipv4 and Ipv6 functionality
D. An Ipv6 ACL with Ipv4 backward compatitiblity
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/intro_intro.html

pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q3

 

QUESTION 4
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.

 

QUESTION 5
What are Options of capture command
A. host
B. real-time
C. type
Correct Answer: BC
real-time, type, interface,buffer, match, packet-lenght,trace,circular-buffer, ethernet-type,acces-list, headers-only

 

QUESTION 6
Which command is the first that you enter to check whether or not ASDM is installed on the ASA?
A. Show ip
B. Show running-config asdm
C. Show running-config boot
D. Show version
E. Show route
Correct Answer: Dpass4itsure 300-206 exam question q6

 

QUESTION 7pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q7

Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html

pass4itsure 300-206 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
CSM (or Prime Infra) Dashboardspass4itsure 300-206 exam question q8

Correct Answer:
Top Destinations –This report ranks the session destinations of all built/deny firewall events received by Security
Manager. The report shows the destination IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the
percentage
of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph
that represents a specific destination to see report information about the top sources and top services associated with
that
destination (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Sources –This report ranks the session sources of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager. The
report shows the source IP address, the count of the number of events for each address, and the percentage of the
count
compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that
represents a specific source to see report information about the top destinations and top services associated with that
source (see
Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Services –This report ranks the destination services of all built/deny firewall events received by Security Manager.
TCP and UDP services include the port number. The report shows the service, the count of the number of events for
each
service, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report. You can click on a data point in
the Pie, XY, or Bar graph that represents a specific service to see report information about the top destinations and top
sources associated with that service (see Drilling Down into Report Data).
Top Infected Hosts –This report ranks the top infected hosts for traffic originating from infected hosts to black- or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the IP address of the infected
host
with the firewall interface name on which the event was detected in parentheses, the count of the number of
connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each address, the count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum of all counts in the report.
Top Malware Ports –This report ranks the top destination ports for traffic originating from infected hosts to black or gray-
listed sites based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the destination malware port,
the
count of the number of connections logged to blacklisted or gray-listed sites for each port, the count of the number of
connections that were blocked (dropped) by botnet traffic filtering, and the percentage of the count compared to the sum
of
all counts in the report.
Top Malware Sites –This report ranks the top botnet sites (black or gray-listed sites) for all inbound and outbound
sessions based on all botnet events received by Security Manager. The report shows the following information:
IP Address–The IP address that is indicated as the malicious host in botnet events, either on the black list or the grey
list.
Malware Site–The domain name or IP address in the dynamic filter database to which the traffic was initiated.
List Type–Whether the site is on the black list or the grey list. Connections Logged–The count of the number of
connections logged or monitored for each site. Connections Blocked–The count of the number of connections that were
blocked
(dropped) by botnet traffic filtering for each site. Threat Level–The botnet threat level for the site, from very low to very
high, or none. Category–The category of threat the site poses as defined in the botnet database, such as botnet,
Trojan,
spyware, and so on.
VPN dashboards
Top Bandwidth Users –This report ranks the VPN users who consumed the most bandwidth. The report shows the
usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and received, and the percentage of reported bandwidth used
by
each user.
Top Duration Users –This report ranks the VPN users who remained connected to the network for the longest time. The
report shows the usernames, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the percentage
of
the reported duration by each user.
The chart shows duration in seconds.
Top Throughput Users –This report ranks the VPN users who sent and received data at the highest throughput rate.
The report shows the usernames, the throughput for each user in kbps, and the percentage of reported throughput by
each
user. The throughput is calculated as 8.0 *(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is connected in
seconds*1000.0).
Connection Profile Report –This report provides a count of user, session, and summary of the bandwidth utilization and
throughput usage for each remote access connection profile. The default report contains this information for all devices
for the previous hour. You can customize the report in several different ways.
User Report –This report provides a summary of the bandwidth utilization, connection duration and throughput usage
for each remote access VPN user. The report shows the usernames, the bandwidth in total number of bytes sent and
received, the connection duration time in days hours:minutes:seconds format, and the throughput for each user in kbps.
The throughput is throughput is calculated as 8.0*(bandwidth of the user in bytes)/(duration for which the user is
connected in seconds*1000.0). Beginning with Security Manager 4.7, the User Report provides both user-level details
and session-level details:
User-Level Details –For a particular user, the user-level details represent the combined value of all that user\\’s
sessions: Username, Total no. of Sessions, Bandwidth, Duration, and Throughput. Session-Level Details –Expanding
the tree
displays the session-level details for each session that a particular user has a VPN connection with; the session-level
details encompass the Session ID, Login Time, Logout Time, Bandwidth, Throughput, and Duration of the Session.
(Here
the logout time is calculated by using the formula Logout Time = Login Time + Duration.)

 

QUESTION 9
What are two reasons to implement Cisco IOS MPLS Bandwidth-Assured Layer 2 Services? (Choose two.)
A. guaranteed bandwidth and peak rates as well as low cycle periods, regardless of which systems access the device
B. increased resiliency through MPLS FRR for AToM circuits and better bandwidth utilization through MPLS TE
C. enabled services over an IP/MPLS infrastructure, for enhanced MPLS Layer 2 functionality
D. provided complete proactive protection against frame and device spoofing
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
Which three options are hardening techniques for Cisco IOS routers? (Choose three.)
A. limiting access to infrastructure with access control lists
B. enabling service password recovery
C. using SSH whenever possible
D. encrypting the service password
E. using Telnet whenever possible
F. enabling DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which URL matches the regex statement “http”*/”www.cisco.com/”*[^E]”xe”?
A. https://www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
B. https://cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.exe
C. http:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.Exe
D. https:/www.cisco.com/ftp/ios/tftpserver.EXE
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three configurations tasks do you perform to allow Not Flow on a Cisco ASA G500 Series firewall? (Choose
three)
A. Apply the newly created class map to the global policy.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map match interesting traffic.
D. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
F. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction
Correct Answer: ACE

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Latest effective Microsoft other Certification AI-100 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data.
On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the data by using Azure Machine Learning models. Once an anomaly
is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You expose a Machine Learning model as an Azure web service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies: temporary and persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning-anomaly-detection

 

QUESTION 2
You are designing an AI solution that will use IoT devices to gather data from conference attendees, and then later
analyze the data. The IoT devices will connect to an Azure IoT hub.
You need to design a solution to anonymize the data before the data is sent to the IoT hub.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-1

Step 1: Create a storage container
ASA Edge jobs run in containers deployed to Azure IoT Edge devices.
Step 2: Create an Azure Stream Analytics Edge Job
Azure Stream Analytics (ASA) on IoT Edge empowers developers to deploy near-real-time analytical intelligence closer
to IoT devices so that they can unlock the full value of device-generated data.
Scenario overview:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
Your company has 1,000 AI developers who are responsible for provisioning environments in Azure. You need to
control the type, size, and location of the resources that the developers can provision. What should you use?
A. Azure Key Vault
B. Azure service principals
C. Azure managed identities
D. Azure Security Center
E. Azure Policy
Correct Answer: B
When an application needs access to deploy or configure resources through Azure Resource Manager in Azure Stack,
you create a service principal, which is a credential for your application. You can then delegate only the necessary
permissions to that service principal.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-stack/azure-stack-create-service-principals

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You create a managed identity for AKS, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh

 

QUESTION 5
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q5-1

Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (a little piece of code) that can be used for. g. event-driven
applications.
The general rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event-driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high-value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

 

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are developing an application that uses an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
You are troubleshooting a node issue.
You need to connect to an AKS node by using SSH.
Solution: You add an SSH key to the node, and then you create an SSH connection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
By default, SSH keys are generated when you create an AKS cluster. If you did not specify your own SSH keys when
you created your AKS cluster, add your public SSH keys to the AKS nodes. You also need to create an SSH connection
to the AKS node.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/ssh


QUESTION 7
You have thousands of images that contain text.
You need to process the text from the images to a machine-readable character stream.
Which Azure Cognitive Services service should you use?
A. the Image Moderation API
B. Text Analytics
C. Translator Text
D. Computer Vision
Correct Answer: D
With Computer Vision you can detect text in an image using optical character recognition (OCR) and extract them
recognized words into a machine-readable character stream.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Use Content Moderator\\’s machine-assisted image moderation and human-in-the-loop Review tool to moderate
images for adult and racy content. Scan images for text content and extract that text, and detect faces. You can match
images against custom lists, and take further action.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/computer-vision/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/content-moderator/image-moderation-api

 

QUESTION 8
Your company has a data team of Transact-SQL experts.
You plan to ingest data from multiple sources into Azure Event Hubs.
You need to recommend which technology the data team should use to move and query data from Event Hubs to Azure
Storage. The solution must leverage the data team\\’s existing skills.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. Azure Event Grid
C. Apache Kafka streams
D. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: B
Event Hubs Capture is the easiest way to automatically deliver streamed data in Event Hubs to an Azure Blob storage
or Azure Data Lake store. You can subsequently process and deliver the data to any other storage destinations of your
choice, such as SQL Data Warehouse or Cosmos DB.
You to capture data from your event hub into a SQL data warehouse by using an Azure function triggered by an event
grid.
Example:pass4itsure ai-100 exam question q8

First, you create an event hub with the Capture feature enabled and set Azure blob storage as the destination. Data
generated by wind turbine generator is streamed into the event hub and is automatically captured into Azure Storage
as
Avro files.
Next, you create an Azure Event Grid subscription with the Event Hubs namespace as its source and the Azure
Function endpoint as its destination. Whenever a new Avro file is delivered to the Azure Storage blob by the Event Hubs
Capture
feature, Event Grid notifies the Azure Function with the blob URI. The Function then migrates data from the blob to a
SQL data warehouse.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/store-captured-data-data-warehouse

 

QUESTION 9
Your company has factories in 10 countries. Each factory contains several thousand IoT devices.
The devices present status and trending data on a dashboard.
You need to ingest the data from the IoT devices into a data warehouse.
Which two Microsoft Azure technologies should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Stream Analytics
B. Azure Data Factory
C. an Azure HDInsight cluster
D. Azure Batch
E. Azure Data Lake
Correct Answer: CE
With Azure Data Lake Store (ADLS) serving as the hyper-scale storage layer and HDInsight serving as the Hadoop-
based compute engine services. It can be used for prepping large amounts of data for insertion into a Data Warehouse
References: https://www.blue-granite.com/blog/azure-data-lake-analytics-holds-a-unique-spot-in-the-modern-data-architecture

 

QUESTION 10
You are configuring data persistence for a Microsoft Bot Framework application. The application requires a structured
NoSQL cloud data store.
You need to identify a storage solution for the application. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you identify?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure HDInsight
D. Azure Table storage
Correct Answer: D
Table Storage is a NoSQL key-value store for rapid development using massive semi-structured datasets
You can develop applications on Cosmos DB using popular NoSQL APIs.
Both services have a different scenario and pricing model.
While Azure Storage Tables is aimed at high capacity on a single region (optional secondary read-only region but no
failover), indexing by PK/RK and storage-optimized pricing; Azure Cosmos DB Tables aims for high throughput (single-
digit
millisecond latency), global distribution (multiple failovers), SLA-backed predictive performance with automatic indexing
of each attribute/property and a pricing model focused on throughput.
References:
https://db-engines.com/en/system/Microsoft+Azure+Cosmos+DB%3BMicrosoft+Azure+Table+Storage

 

QUESTION 11
You are designing an AI solution that must meet the following processing requirements:
Use a parallel processing framework that supports the in-memory processing of high volumes of data.
Use in-memory caching and a columnar storage engine for Apache Hive queries.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Box 1: Apache Spark
Apache Spark is a parallel processing framework that supports in-memory processing to boost the performance of big-
data analytic applications. Apache Spark in Azure HDInsight is the Microsoft implementation of Apache Spark in the
cloud.
Box 2: Interactive Query
Interactive Query provides In-memory caching and improved columnar storage engine for Hive queries.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/spark/apache-spark-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/hdinsight/interactive-query/apache-interactive-query-get-started

 

QUESTION 12
You plan to design an application that will use data from Azure Data Lake and perform sentiment analysis by using
Azure Machine Learning algorithms.
The developers of the application use a mix of Windows- and Linux-based environments. The developers contribute to
shared GitHub repositories.
You need all the developers to use the same tool to develop the application.
What is the best tool to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Microsoft Visual Studio Code
B. Azure Notebooks
C. Azure Machine Learning Studio
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/blob/master/articles/machine-learning/studio/algorithm-choice.md

 

QUESTION 13
You are designing a solution that will ingest data from an Azure IoT Edge device, preprocess the data in Azure Machine
Learning, and then move the data to Azure HDInsight for further processing.
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Box 1: Export Data The Export data to Hive option in the Export Data module in Azure Machine Learning Studio. This
option is useful when you are working with very large datasets, and want to save your machine learning experiment data
to a Hadoop cluster or HDInsight distributed storage. Box 2: Apache Hive Apache Hive is a data warehouse system for
Apache Hadoop. Hive enables data summarization, querying, and analysis of data. Hive queries are written in HiveQL,
which is a query language similar to SQL. Box 3: Azure Data Lake Default storage for the HDFS file system of
HDInsight clusters can be associated with either an Azure Storage account or an Azure Data Lake Storage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/export-to-hive-query
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hadoop/hdinsight-use-hive

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QUESTION 1
You have a login-path named “adamlocal” that was created by using the mysql_config_editor command.
You need to check what is defined for this login_path to ensure that it is correct for you deployment.
You execute this command:
$ mysql_config_editor print login-path=adamlocal
What is the expected output of this command?
A. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is printed in plain text.
B. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is shown only when you provide the password
option.
C. The command prints all parameter for the login-path. The password is replaced with stars.
D. The command prints the encrypted entry for the login-path. The is only possible to see if an entry exists.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
The `allplicationdb\\’ is using innoDB and consuming a large amount of file system space. You have a / backup partition
available on NFS where backups are stored.
You investigate and gather the following information:
[mysqld] Datadir=/var/lib/mysql/ Innodb_file_per_table=0
Three tables are stored in the innoDB shared tablespace and the details are as follows: The table data_current has
1,000,000 rows.
The table data_reports has 1,500,000 rows.
The table data_archive has 4,500,000 rows.
Shell> is -1 /var/lib/mysql/
-rw-rw—- 1 mysql mysql 744G Aug 26 14:34 ibdata1 -rw-rw—- 1 mysql mysql 480M Aug 26 14:34 ib_logfile0 -rw-rw—-
1 mysql mysql 480M Aug 26 14:34 ib_logfile1 …
You attempt to free space from ibdata1 by taking a mysqldump of the data_archive table and storting it on your backup
partition.
Shell> mysqldump u root p applicationdb data_archive > /backup/data_archive.sql Mysql> DROP TABLE data_archive;
Which set of actions will allow you to free disk space back to the file system?
A. Execute OPTIMIZE TABLE so that the InnoDB engine frees unused pages on disk back to the file system: Mysql>
OPTIMIZE TABLE data_current, data_reports;
B. Set the server to use its own tablespace, and then alter the table so that data is moved from the shared tablespace to
its own: Mysql> SET GLOBAL innodb_file_per_table=1; Mysql> ALTER TABLE data_current ENGINE=InnoDB; Mysql>
ALTER TABLE data_repors ENGINE=InnoDB;
C. Take a backup, stop the server, remove the data files, and restore the backup: Shell> mysqldump u root p
applicationdb / > /backup/applicationdb.sql Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql stop Shell> cd /var/lib/mysql/ Shell> rm ibdata1
ib_logfile0 ib_logfile1 Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql start Shell> mysql u root p applicationdb
D. Enable compression on the table, causing InnoDB to release unused pages on disk to the file system: Mysql> SET
GLOBLE innodb_file_per_table=1; Mysql> SET GLOBLE innodb_file_format=Barramcuda; Mysql> ALTER TABLE
data_current ROW_FORMAT=COMPRESSED KEY_BLOCK_SIZE=8; Mysql> ALTER TABLE data_history
ROW_FORMAT=COMPRESSED KEY_BLOCK_SIZE=8;
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
The following event detail is found in the audit log:

Which two points can be concluded from the given event?
A. A connection was blocked by a firewall or a similar security mechanism.
B. A connection was attempted via socket rather than TCP.
C. A connection failed because the proxy user privileges did not match the login user.
D. A connection as the user kate was successful.
E. A connection failed due to authentication being unsuccessful.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
You want to shutdown a running Mysql Server cleanly.
Which three commands that are valid on either Windows or Linux will achieve this?
A. Shell> pkill u mysql mysqld_safe
B. Shell> service mysql safe_exit
C. Shell> /etc/init.d/mysql stop
D. Shell> mysqladmin u root p shutdown
E. Mysql> STOP PROCESS mysqld;
F. Shell> net stop mysql
G. Shell> nmc mysql shutdown
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 5
You want a record of all queries that are not using indexes.
How would you achieve this?
A. By enabling the Slow Query Log because all queries that are not using indexes will be logged automatically
B. By enabling the Error Log because not using indexes is an error
C. By enabling the Slow Query Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
D. By enabling the Error Log and using the log-queries-not-using-indexes option
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which two are correct steps in taking a binary backup of MyISAM tables?
A. Always stop the server prior to the backup.
B. Stop the server or lock the tables prior to the backup.
C. Stop the server or lock the databases prior to the backup.
D. Make a copy of the .frm, .myd, and the .myi files.
E. Make a copy of the binary log and tablespace files.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
While reviewing the MySQL error log, you see occasions where MySQL has exceeded the number of file handles
allowed to it by the operating system.
Which method will reduce the number of file handles in use?
A. Disconnecting idle localhost client sessions
B. Implementing storage engine data compression options
C. Relocating your data and log files to separate storage devices
D. Activating the MySQL Enterprise thread pool plugin
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
The validate_password plugin is loaded and displays the following settings in global variables: Mysql> SHOW
VARIABLES LIKE `validate_password%\\’;pass4itsure 1z0-883 exam question q8

When attempting to set your password, you get the following error:
Mysql> SET PASSWORD = PASSWORD (`[email protected]%\\’);
ERROR 1819 (HY000): Your password does not satisfy the current policy requirements
What is the cause of the error?
A. The password is eight characters long, but needs to exceed validate_password_length to be valid.
B. All of the MEDIUM password policy requirements have not been honored.
C. The password matches a substring Hover as a dictionary word.
D. The password does not match the validate_passoword_number_count requirement.
E. There is no dictionary file defined, so password validation cannot work as expected.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which three tasks can be performed by using the performance Schema?
A. Finding queries that are not using indexes
B. Finding rows that are locked by InnoDB
C. Finding client connection attributes
D. Finding the part of a code in which a single query is spending time
E. Finding the size of each table
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 10
Which statement is true about FLUSH LOGS command?
A. It requires the RELOAD, FILE, and DROP privileges.
B. It closes and reopens all log files.
C. It closes and sends binary log files to slave servers.
D. It flushes dirty pages in the buffer pool to the REDO logs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information
F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command
Correct Answer: BDEF


QUESTION 12
You want to start monitoring statistics on the distribution of storage engines that are being used and the
average sizes of tables in the various databases.
Some details are as follows:
The Mysql instance has 400 databases.
Each database on an average consists of 25-50 tables.
You use the query:
SELECT TABLE_SCHEMA,
`ENGINE\\’,
COUNT (*),
SUM (data_length) total_size
FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_TYPE = `BASE TABLE\\’
GROUP BY TABLE_SCHEMA, `ENGINE\\’
;
Why is this query slow to execute?
A. Counting and summarizing all table pages in the InnoDB shared tablespace is time consuming.
B. Collecting information requires various disk-level operations and is time consuming.
C. Aggregating details from various storage engine caches for the final output is time consuming.
D. Collecting information requires large numbers of locks on various INFORMATION_SCHEMA tables.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You have a server that has very limited memory but has a very large table.
You will use mysqldump to back up this table.
Which option will ensure mysqldump will process a row at a time instead of buffering a set of rows?
A. — quick
B. — skip-buffer
C. — single-transaction
D. — tab
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to
enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 642-737 exam-12Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 642-737 exam-26

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 31
An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. 802.1x
B. Static WEP
C. WPA + WPA2
D. CKIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
What NAC appliance component is configured to create user roles, meet remediation requirements, and handle checking for device compliance?
A. NGS
B. NAA
C. NAS
D. NAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
All users on one of the two guest WLANs are failing to connect after a configuration change was made to a controller. What is the cause of the outage?
A. The interface or VLAN of the anchor controller and foreign controller no longer match.
B. The configuration of the failing WLAN no longer matches the foreign controllers.
C. The address of the NAC guest server has been changed.
D. The DHCP server on the foreign controller was changed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
An engineer is configuring 802.1x authentication on an autonomous AP. What two configuration commands must be included on the AP if the RADIUS server IP is 10.9.4.9? (Choose two.)
A. radius-server host 10.9.4.9 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1813 key Cisco123
B. aaa new-model
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa attribute list 10.9.4.9
E. aaa group server radius 10.9.4.9
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-737 exam-35

QUESTION 36
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-737 exam-36 pass4itsure 642-737 exam-36-1

QUESTION 37
DRAG DROPpass4itsure 642-737 exam-37

QUESTION 38
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QUESTION 39
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QUESTION 40
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Exam 70-398: Planning for and Managing Devices in the Enterprise:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-398.aspx

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QUESTION 1
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the Internet by using DirectAccess.
Your company wants to deploy a new application to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements:
You need to deploy the new application to the tablets.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the application as an Application Virtualization (App-V) package. Install the App- V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the application as a published application on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. Install the application on a local drive on the tablets.
D. Install the application in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. Install Hyper-V on tablets. Install the application on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the application to Windows Store.
G. Install the application within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. Install the application within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company deploys Office 365 in a federated identity model. The environment has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) servers and two Web Application Proxy servers that are not joined to the domain.
All externally published applications that use Windows Authentication and are hosted on- premises must use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to log on.
You need deploy pre-authentication on the Web Application Proxy (WAP) servers.
What should you do first?
A. Enable Kerberos constrained delegation.
B. Join the WAP servers to the AD DS domain.
C. Remove and reinstall the AD FS role.D Remove and reinstall the WAP role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer.
The computer has a shared folder named C:\Marketing. The shared folder is on an NTFS volume.
The current NTFS and share permissions are configured as follows.
pass4itsure 70-398 question
UserA is a member of both the Everyone group and the Marketing group. UserA must access C:\Marketing from across the network. You need to identify the effective permissions of UserA to the C:\Marketing folder.
What permission should you identify?
A. Full Control
B. Read and Execute
C. Read
D. Modify
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company plans to deploy Outlook as a managed app to all users. You deploy Microsoft Intune.
You must deploy an internally developed iOS line of business (LOB) app to all users in the sales department. These users must only be able to share data between Outlook and the internally developed LOB app.
You need to configure the environment for sales department users.
What should you do?
A. Configure a security policy that forces encryption.
B. Use the Intune App Wrapping Tool to repackage the internally developed LOB application.
C. Upload the internally developed LOB app to the Apple App Store. Deploy the app to all users in the sales department.
D. Use the Intune App Wrapping Tool to repackage the Outlook application. Set the value for the App ID to match to Application ID of the internally developed LOB application.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator for a department that has Windows 10 Enterprise computers in a domain configuration.
You deploy an application to all computers in the domain.
You need to use group policy to restrict certain groups from running the application.
What should you do?
A. Set up DirectAccess.
B. Configure AppLocker.
C. Disable BitLocker.
D. Run the User State Management Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
The company apps need to be made available to all mobile devices. You recently published the new applications in Azure.
What should you do?
A. In the Microsoft Azure admin portal, add users to the app collection for the apps.
B. In the MicrosoftAzure admin portal, enable multi-factor authentication.
C. Instruct users to download the Remote Desktop app from the appropriate vendor app store.
D. Run the following Windows PowerShell cmdlet:Update-AzureRemoteAppCollection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A company has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You deploy Enterprise Mobility + Security, Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), and Microsoft Identity Manager.
You need to implement additional security when users remotely connect to corporate resources.
What should you implement?
A. System Center Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft Intune
C. Azure Rights Management Service
D. Azure Multi-Factor Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A company deploys Enterprise Mobility + Security. The company plans to use Azure Active Directory (AD) Premium to join all new Windows 10 devices.
Users must not be allowed to change the PowerSleep option.
You need to automatically apply custom power policies to all Windows 10 Azure AD joined devices.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure AD Premium Configuration page, enable automatic device enrollment.
B. Create a custom Poweroption Group Policy in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). Set the value of the PowerSleep option to False.C. Configure automatic enrollment into Microsoft Intune. Create and deploy a custom Compliance policy to all Windows 10 devices.
D. Configure automatic enrollment into Microsoft Intune for all Azure AD Premium joined devices. Apply a custom set of Open Mobile Alliance Uniform Resource Identifier (OMA- URI) settings to configure custom power settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A company plans to deploy Microsoft Office to mobile device users. You purchase Enterprise Mobility + Security licenses and deploy Microsoft Intune.
Company data must only be shared between applications approved by the company and Microsoft Office applications.
You need to ensure that users cannot share data with other applications.
What should you do?
A. Configure a managed application policy that requires a PIN code to access the application on the device.
B. Configure a conditional access policy that enforces application encryption on all devices.
C. Deploy and configure Azure Rights Management Services.
D. Configure a configuration policy that will enable a PIN code and deploy the policy to all Office users.
E. Configure a managed application policy that will restrict cut, copy, and paste with other non-managed applications.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
You manage an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain that has 500 devices. All devices run Windows 7 Enterprise Edition. You deploy System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager SP1.
You plan to upgrade all devices to Windows 10 Enterprise and encrypt the devices by using Microsoft BitLocker Administration and Monitoring (MBAM), Data secured with BitLocker must not be stored on USB devices.
You need to ensure that existing devices are ready for the upgrade.
What should you do?
A. Implement MBAM in thedomain. Create an MBAM group policy and apply the policy to all devices.
B. Verify that the System Center Configuration Manager agent is installed on all devices.
C. In the system BIOS, verify that all devices have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2 or higher chip. Enable the TPM chip.
D. Integrate MBAM with System Center Configuration Manager. Deploy the BitLocker prepare task sequence to all laptop computers.
E. From System Center Configuration Manager, create a custom deploy task sequence that enables MBAM. Deploy the task sequence to all Windows 7 devices.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You manage a network that includes Windows 10 Enterprise computers. All of the computers on the network are members of an Active Directory domain.
The company recently proposed a new security policy that prevents users from synchronizing applications settings, browsing history, favorites, and passwords from the computers with their Microsoft accounts.
You need to enforce these security policy requirements on the computers.
What should you do?
A. On the Group Policy Object, configure the Accounts: Block Microsoft accounts Group Policy setting to Users can’t add Microsoft accounts.
B. On the Group Policy Object, configure the Accounts: Block Microsoft accounts Group Policy setting to Users can’t add or log on with Microsoft accounts.
C. From each computer, navigate to Change Sync Settings and set the Sync Your Settings options for Apps, Browser, and Passwords to Off.
D. From each computer, navigate to Change Sync Settings and set the Sync Your Settings option to Off.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are a network administrator for a company that has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You purchase Enterprise Mobility Suite licenses. You implement synchronization by using a federated identity model.
Passwords for Sales team users often expire while they are travelling. When this happens, the users are not able to log on to the virtual private network (VPN) to perform their duties. Users must be able to reset their own passwords.
You need to enable password write-back.
Which application should you configure?
A. Web Application Proxy
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
D. Directory Synchronization (DirSync)
E. Azure Active Directory Connect
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
You configure Windows Remote Desktop to allow remote connections. You are testing the remote desktop connection.
When users that are not administrators sign in to the Remote Desktop Connection, the following error message displays: “To sign in remotely, you need the right to sign in through Remote Desktop Services.”
You need to ensure that all employees can access resources by using Remote Desktop Connection.
What should you do?
A. In the local group policy, configure the Remote Desktop Connection Client to prompt for credentials on the client.
B. Create a Group Policy Object that enables the Windows Firewall to allow inbound Remote Desktop Exceptions.
C. Ensure that the employee’s device is joined to the domain.
D. In Computer Management, add the Authenticated Users group to the Remote Users group.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named global.fabrikam.com, and an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 server. The company has an Office 365 E3 subscription. You have not assigned any
licenses to users. You deploy Enterprise Mobility Suite (EMS). All client devices run Windows 7 and Office 2010.
You must protect emails that contain sensitive information from unauthorized access.
You need to ensure that users can easily protect sensitive emails as messages are sent.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure Exchange Online.
B. Configure Office 365 message encryption.
C. Upgrade client devices to Office 365 Pro Plus.
D. Assign an EMS license to each user.
E. Deploy theRights Management Service client.
F. Assign an Office 365 E3 license to each user.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 15
A company plans to actively manage mobile devices.
You need to create a list of all jailbroken devices after they are enrolled.
What should you use?
A. Azure Active Directory
B. System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager SP1
C. Intune
D. Azure Active Directory Domain Services
E. Azure Active Directory Device Registration Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company implements offline files for all Windows 10 devices.
A user reports that they are running low on free disk space.
You need to determine the amount of disk space being used by offline files on the user’s device.
What should you do?A. On the device, run the following Windows PowerShell command:Get-Disk | Where- Object IsOffline- Eq $True | Set-Disk-IsOffline $False
B. Instruct the user to launch Resource Manager.
C. On the device, run the following Windows PowerShell command:Get-Disk | Where- Object IsOffline- Eq $False | Set-Disk-IsOffline $True
D. Instruct the user to launch Sync Center.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise. Computer1 is configured to receive Windows updates from the Internet.
If a user is logged on to Computer1, you need to prevent Computer1 from automatically restarting without the logged on user’s consent after the installation of the Windows updates.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Defer upgrades setting.
B. Edit the Automatic App Update scheduled task.
C. Configure the Choose how updates are delivered setting.
D. Configure the Choose how updates are installed setting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
HOTSPOT
Your company upgrades a research and development department workstation to a Windows 10 Enterprise computer. Two of the workstation’s folders need to be encrypted. The folders are named C:\ProtectedFiles and C:\Backups.
You attempt to encrypt the folders. The output is shown in the following exhibit
pass4itsure 70-398 question
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP
You have a desktop computer and a tablet that both run Windows 10 Enterprise.
The desktop computer is located at your workplace and is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains an Application Virtualization (App-V) infrastructure. Several App-V applications are deployed to all desktop computers.
The tablet is located at your home and is a member of a workgroup. Both locations have Internet connectivity.
You need to be able to access all applications that run on the desktop computer from you tablet.
Which actions should you perform on each computer? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct computer. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content
pass4itsure 70-398 question
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
Your organization is deploying new Windows 10 devices. You create a new organizational unit that contains all Windows 10 devices.
You are preparing a new security policy for Windows 10 devices. Your organization requires audits on the use of removable storage devices on personal devices.
You need to enable audits of removable storage.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
pass4itsure 70-398 question
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 21
HOTSPOT
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 server named Server1. Server1 has Remote Desktop Services (RDS) installed. You create a session collection named Session1 and publish a RemoteApp in Session1.
Server1 has an application named App1. The executable for App1 is C:\Apps\App1.exe. You need to ensure that App1 is available as a RemoteApp in Session1.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
You have a computer that runs Windows 10 Enterprise that contains the following folders:
pass4itsure 70-398 question
You have a local user named User1. User1 has read and execute permission to Folder1.
You need to ensure that User1 can perform the following tasks:
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which permissions should you assign to User1 on each folder? To answer, drag the appropriate permissions to the correct folders. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a Microsoft Azure RemoteApp collection by using a custom template image. The image will contain Microsoft Word and Excel Office 365 ProPlus programs.
You need to install the Word and Excel programs. The solution must minimize the amount of Internet traffic used during installation.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 24
HOTSPOT
You upgrade 15 client devices to Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to configure the devices.
Which Control Panel applets should you use? To answer, select the appropriate applet from each list in the answer area. Each correct answer is worth one point.
pass4itsure 70-398 question
pass4itsure 70-398 question

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
A bank deploys Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS). The bank plans to migrate to Azure Rights Management Services (Azure RMS) as an alternative to the on- premises based AD RMS.
The bank must follow regulatory policies that restrict access to certain financial documents.
In the table below, identify which function each platform supports.
NOTE: Make only selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point
pass4itsure 70-398 question

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70-398 PDF dumps & 70-398 VCE dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-398.html (75 Q&As)
(We have carefully complied realistic exam questions and answers, which are updated frequently, and reviewed by
industry experts. Our experts from multiple organizations are talented and qualified individuals who have reviewed
each question and answer explanation section in order to help you understand the concept and pass the certification exam.
The best way to prepare for an exam is not reading a text book, but taking practice questions and understanding the correct answers.)

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