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CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-002 practice test (q1-q13)
QUESTION 1 A business analyst is drafting a risk assessment. Which of the following components should be included in the draft? (Choose two.) A. Asset management B. Database type C. Encryption algorithms D. Certificate name E. Asset inventory F. Data classification Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 2 A developer is leveraging a public cloud service provider to provision servers using the templates created by the company\\’s cloud engineer. Which of the following does this BEST describe? A. Subscription services B. Containerization C. User self-service D. Autonomous environments Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A small business is engaged with a cloud provider to migrate from on-premises CRM software. The contract includes fixed costs associated with the product. Which of the following variable costs must be considered? A. Time to market B. Operating expenditure fees C. BYOL costs D. Human capital Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A company has a perpetual license for a database application. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective option when moving to the cloud? A. Fixed B. Subscription C. EULA D. BYOL Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the following cloud principles will help manage the risk of a network breach? A. Shared responsibility B. Self-service C. Availability D. Elasticity Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An online retailer wants to ensure its inventory for the holiday season is correct. The company does not have a large IT infrastructure or staff to collect and analyze sales information, customer analytics, marketing information, or trends. Which of the following cloud services will help the company analyze these metrics without a large investment in human capital? A. Containerization B. Big Data C. Microservices D. Blockchain Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A company wants to migrate mission-critical applications to the cloud. In order for technicians to build, decommission, and perform other routine functions, which of the following cloud characteristics would BEST satisfy this business requirement? A. Self-service B. Elasticity C. Broad network access D. Availability Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following BEST describes how a cloud provider helps a company with security risk responses? A. Acceptance B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Transference Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Transferring all of a customer\\’s on-premises data and virtual machines to an appliance, and then shipping it to a cloud provider is a technique used in a: A. phased migration approach. B. replatforming migration approach. C. rip and replace migration approach. D. lift and shift migration approach. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which of the following are true about the use of machine learning in a cloud environment? (Choose two). A. Specialized machine learning algorithms can be deployed to optimize results for specific scenarios. B. Machine learning can just be hosted in the cloud for managed services. C. Just one type of cloud storage is available in the cloud for machine learning workloads. D. Machine learning can leverage processes in a cloud environment through the use of cloud storage and auto-scaling. E. Machine learning requires a specialized IT team to create the machine learning models from scratch. F. Using machine learning solutions in the cloud removes the data-gathering step from the learning process. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is the cloud storage technology that would allow a company with 12 nearly identical servers to have the SMALLEST storage footprint? A. Capacity on demand B. Compression C. Software-defined storage D. Deduplication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A systems administrator is reviewing a disaster recovery option that requires little to no downtime in the event of a natural disaster. Which of the following BEST meets this requirement? A. Configure availability zones. B. Configure high availability. C. Configure geo-redundancy. D. Configure auto-scaling. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which of the following BEST explains the concept of RTOs for restoring servers to operational use? A. To reduce the amount of data loss that can occur in the event of a server failure B. To ensure the restored server is available and operational within a given window of time C. To ensure the data on the restored server is current within a given window of time D. To reduce the amount of time a particular server is unavailable and offline Correct Answer: B
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CompTIA CASP CAS-003 Exam Practice Test Questions 1-13
QUESTION 1 The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO). A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images. B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography. C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash. D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made. E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months. Correct Answer: AC Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what files were changed. Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the hash values differ, there is a difference between the two images.
QUESTION 2 An application present on the majority of an organization\\’s 1,000 systems is vulnerable to a buffer overflow attack. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive way to resolve the issue? A. Deploy custom HIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks. B. Validate and deploy the appropriate patch. C. Run the application in terminal services to reduce the threat landscape. D. Deploy custom NIPS signatures to detect and block the attacks. Correct Answer: B If an application has a known issue (such as susceptibility to buffer overflow attacks) and a patch is released to resolve the specific issue, then the best solution is always to deploy the patch. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information – which has to go somewhere – can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user\\’s files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
QUESTION 3 Given the following information about a company\\’s internal network: User IP space: 192.168.1.0/24 Server IP space: 192.168.192.0/25 A security engineer has been told that there are rogue websites hosted outside of the proper server space, and those websites need to be identified. Which of the following should the engineer do? A. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.1.0/24 B. Use a port scanner on 192.168.1.0/24 C. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.1.0/24 D. Use a port scanner on 192.168.192.0/25 E. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.192.0/25 F. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.192.0/25 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe? A. TOTP B. PAP C. CHAP D. HOTP Correct Answer: D The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use codes. HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm. HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server. Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP. Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.
QUESTION 5 A security administrator must configure the database server shown below the comply with the four requirements listed. Drag and drop the appropriate ACL that should be configured on the database server to its corresponding requirement. Answer options may be used once or not at all.
Select and Place:
QUESTION 6 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is reviewing the controls in place to support the organization\\’s vulnerability management program. The CISO finds patching and vulnerability scanning policies and procedures are in place. However, the CISO is concerned the organization is siloed and is not maintaining awareness of new risks to the organization. The CISO determines systems administrators need to participate in industry security events. Which of the following is the CISO looking to improve? A. Vendor diversification B. System hardening standards C. Bounty programs D. Threat awareness E. Vulnerability signatures Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a security team member to look into the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment? A. The OS version is not compatible B. The OEM is prohibited C. The device does not support FDE D. The device is rooted Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A new database application was added to a company\\’s hosted VM environment. Firewall ACLs were modified to allow database users to access the server remotely. The company\\’s cloud security broker then identified abnormal from a database user on-site. Upon further investigation, the security team noticed the user ran code on a VM that provided access to the hypervisor directly and access to other sensitive data. Which of the following should the security do to help mitigate future attacks within the VM environment? (Choose two.) A. Install the appropriate patches. B. Install perimeter NGFW. C. Configure VM isolation. D. Deprovision database VM. E. Change the user\\’s access privileges. F. Update virus definitions on all endpoints. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9 A forensics analyst suspects that a breach has occurred. Security logs show the company\\’s OS patch system may be compromised, and it is serving patches that contain a zero-day exploit and backdoor. The analyst extracts an executable file from a packet capture of communication between a client computer and the patch server. Which of the following should the analyst use to confirm this suspicion? A. File size B. Digital signature C. Checksums D. Anti-malware software E. Sandboxing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been asked to develop a security dashboard with the relevant metrics. The board of directors will use the dashboard to monitor and track the overall security posture of the organization. The CIO produces a basic report containing both KPI and KRI data in two separate sections for the board to review. Which of the following BEST meets the needs of the board? A. KRI:- Compliance with regulations- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basisKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- EDR coverage across the fleet- Threat landscape rating B. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors C. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fleet- % of suppliers with approved security control framework- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations-Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors D. KPI:- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Threat landscape ratingKRI:- Time to resolve open security items- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- EDR coverage across the fleet- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 A security analyst is reviewing logs and discovers that a company-owned computer issued to an employee is generating many alerts and analyst continues to review the log events and discovers that a non-company-owned device from a different, unknown IP address is general same events. The analyst informs the manager of these finding, and the manager explains that these activities are already known and . . . ongoing simulation. Given this scenario, which of the following roles are the analyst, the employee, and the manager fillings? A. The analyst is red team The employee is blue team The manager is white team B. The analyst is white team The employee is red team The manager is blue team C. The analyst is red team The employee is white team The manager is blue team D. The analyst is blue team The employee is red team The manager is white team Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 An online bank has contracted with a consultant to perform a security assessment of the bank\\’s web portal. The consultant notices the login page is linked from the main page with HTTPS, but when the URL is changed to HTTP, the browser is automatically redirected back to the HTTPS site. Which of the following is a concern for the consultant, and how can it be mitigated? A. XSS could be used to inject code into the login page during the redirect to the HTTPS site. The consultant should implement a WAF to prevent this. B. The consultant is concerned the site is using an older version of the SSL 3.0 protocol that is vulnerable to a variety of attacks. Upgrading the site to TLS 1.0 would mitigate this issue. C. The HTTP traffic is vulnerable to network sniffing, which could disclose usernames and passwords to an attacker. The consultant should recommend disabling HTTP on the web server. D. A successful MITM attack Could intercept the redirect and use sslstrip to decrypt further HTTPS traffic. Implementing HSTS on the web server would prevent this. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A hospital uses a legacy electronic medical record system that requires multicast for traffic between the application servers and databases on virtual hosts that support segments of the application. Following a switch upgrade, the electronic medical record is unavailable despite physical connectivity between the hypervisor and the storage being in place. The network team must enable multicast traffic to restore access to the electronic medical record. The ISM states that the network team must reduce the footprint of multicast traffic on the network.
Using the above information, on which VLANs should multicast be enabled? A. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400 B. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN700 C. VLAN201, VLAN202, VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700 D. VLAN400, VLAN680, VLAN700 Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 In an effort to be proactive, an analyst has run an assessment against a sample workstation before auditors visit next month. The scan results are as follows:
Based on the output of the scan, which of the following is the BEST answer? A. Failed credentialed scan B. Failed compliance check C. Successful sensitivity level check D. Failed asset inventory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Using a heuristic system to detect an anomaly in a computer\\’s baseline, a system administrator was able to detect an attack even though the company signature based IDS and antivirus did not detect it. Further analysis revealed that the attacker had downloaded an executable file onto the company PC from the USB port, and executed it to trigger a privilege escalation flaw. Which of the following attacks has MOST likely occurred? A. Cookie stealing B. Zero-day C. Directory traversal D. XML injection Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A company has decided to process credit card transactions directly. Which of the following would meet the requirements for scanning this type of data? A. Quarterly B. Yearly C. Bi-annually D. Monthly Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security control for the manager to invest in to protect the facility? A. Run a penetration test on the installed agent. B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis. C. Require through guides for administrator and users. D. Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 During a recent audit, there were a lot of findings similar to and including the following:
Which of the following would be the BEST way to remediate these findings and minimize similar findings in the future? A. Use an automated patch management solution. B. Remove the affected software programs from the servers. C. Run Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer on all of the servers. D. Schedule regular vulnerability scans for all servers on the network. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts B. Disable the user accounts C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7 Considering confidentiality and integrity, which of the following make servers more secure than desktops? (Select THREE). A. VLANs B. OS C. Trained operators D. Physical access restriction E. Processing power F. Hard drive capacity Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 8 A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing log data and sees the output below:
Which of the following technologies MOST likely generated this log? A. Stateful inspection firewall B. Network-based intrusion detection system C. Web application firewall D. Host-based intrusion detection system Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A cybersecurity analyst is currently investigating a server outage. The analyst has discovered the following value was entered for the username: 0xbfff601a. Which of the following attacks may be occurring? A. Buffer overflow attack B. Man-in-the-middle attack C. Smurf attack D. Format string attack E. Denial of service attack Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Weeks before a proposed merger is scheduled for completion, a security analyst has noticed unusual traffic patterns on a file server that contains financial information. Routine scans are not detecting the signature of any known exploits or malware. The following entry is seen in the ftp server logs: tftp -I 10.1.1.1 GET fourthquarterreport.xls Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Continue to monitor the situation using tools to scan for known exploits. B. Implement an ACL on the perimeter firewall to prevent data exfiltration. C. Follow the incident response procedure associate with the loss of business critical data. D. Determine if any credit card information is contained on the server containing the financials. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked the security analyst to examine abnormally high processor utilization on a key server. The output below is from the company\\’s research and development (RandD) server.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take FIRST? A. Initiate an investigation B. Isolate the RandD server C. Reimage the server D. Determine availability Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A cybersecurity analyst develops a regular expression to find data within traffic that will alarm on a hit.
The SIEM alarms on seeing this data in cleartext between the web server and the database server.
Which of the following types of data would the analyst MOST likely to be concerned with, and to which type of data classification does it belong? A. Credit card numbers that are PCI B. Social security numbers that are PHI C. Credit card numbers that are PII D. Social security numbers that are PII Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 An analyst wants to use a command line tool to identify open ports and running services on a host along with the application that is associated with those services and port. Which of the following should the analyst use? A. Wireshark B. Qualys C. netstat D. nmap E. ping Correct Answer: DPass4itsure discount code 2020
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QUESTION 1 In a nested directory structure, which find command line option would be used to restrict the command to searching
down a particular number of subdirectories?
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2 Which of the following sequences in the vi editor saves the opened document and exits the editor? (Choose TWO
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 3 Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4 What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 5 Which of the following commands can be used to search for the executable file foo when it has been placed in a
directory not included in $PATH?
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6 Which of the following are valid stream redirection operators within Bash? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 7 Which of the following commands displays the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf
D. tar cf archive.tgz
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8 Which of the following signals is sent to a process when the key combination CTRL+C is pressed on the keyboard?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9 Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the directories are man pages found?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11 When using rpm –verify to check files created during the installation of RPM packages, which of the following
information is taken into consideration? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
B. MD5 checksums
D. File sizes E. GnuPG signatures LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 12 What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 Which of the following commands can be used to create a USB storage media from a disk image?
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which of the following commands can be used to download the RPM package kernel without installing it?
A. yum download –no-install kernel
B. yumdownloader kernel
C. rpm –download –package kernel
D. rpmdownload kernel
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15 Which of the following is correct when talking about mount points?
A. Every existing directory can be used as a mount point.
B. Only empty directories can be used as a mount point. C. Directories need to have the SetUID flag set to be used as a mount point.
D. Files within a directory are deleted when the directory is used as a mount point.
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16 Instead of supplying an explicit device in /etc/fstab for mounting, what other options may be used to identify the intended
partition? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 17 Which of the following commands lists all currently installed packages when using RPM package management?
A. yum –query –all
B. yum –list –installed
C. rpm –query –all
D. rpm –list installed
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18 Regarding the command:
nice -5 /usr/bin/prog
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of -5.
B. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a nice level of 5.
C. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of -5.
D. /usr/bin/prog is executed with a priority of 5.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19 Which of the following commands can be used to determine how long the system has been running? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
D. uname -u
E. time up LX0-103 dump Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 20 After running the command umount /mnt, the following error message is displayed:
umount: /mnt: device is busy.
What is a common reason for this message?
A. The kernel has not finished flushing disk writes to the mounted device.
B. A user has a file open in the /mnt directory.
C. Another file system still contains a symlink to a file inside /mnt.
D. The files in /mnt have been scanned and added to the locate database.
E. The kernel thinks that a process is about to open a file in /mnt for reading.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21 Which file should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22 What command will generate a list of user names from /etc/passwd along with their login shell?
A. column -s : 1,7 /etc/passwd B. chop -c 1,7 /etc/passwd
C. colrm 1,7 /etc/passwd
D. cut -d: -f1,7 /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: D
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