CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-165
Exam Name: DCII Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCII)
Updated: Sep 02, 2017
Q&As: 165

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300-165 dumps

Latest Cisco 300-165 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (September 2017)#

QUESTION 1
What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
300-165 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary or
Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6
What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
300-165 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?”
E. ” ”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?

A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
300-165 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private

300-165 vce Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
300-165 exam Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 18
What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
300-165 dumps Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco, Cisco Business Value Specialist

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Exam Code: 810-403
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 166

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  • Select the components required to meet a given network specification.
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810-403 dumps

Latest Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (September 2017)#

QUESTION: 15
Your customer has implemented sales order management using all available scenarios
in SAP ERP. They plan to extend their business processes by using SAP CRM. For
which scenario do you advise them to use CRM?
A. Contract Management
B. Inquiry Management
C. Opportunity Management
D. Quotation Management
810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 16
How do you enable campaign determination for sales orders in SAP ERP using
campaigns from SAP CRM? (Choose two)
A. Maintain the campaign determination procedure in ERP.
B. Download the campaign determination procedure from CRM to ERP.
C. Maintain condition records for campaign determination in ERP.
D. Activate campaign determination in ERP.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 17
The customer wants to exclude taxes for special transactions like goods movement,
goods receipt purchase order, and goods receipt production order. What is required to
implement this?
A. Define tax determination for each tax condition.
B. Define tax codes for non-tax relevant transactions.

C. Exclude tax codes using responsibilities in an access sequence.
D. Exclude tax codes in the condition type using formulas.
810-403 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
The customer wants to see the reference number of the SD billing documents in the FI
documents. Which implementation strategy do you recommend?
A. Use the foreseen customer exit to provide the number to the FI document.
B. Use a modification with a user exit to include the number in the FI document.
C. Use the customizing of the copy control to copy the number from the billing
document.
D. Use one of the standard fields that are not used in the billing and the FI document to
store and populate the number.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 19
A customer uses make-to-order production with assembly processing. How do you
schedule a sales order when components are already produced and procured?
A. Create a production order directly from the sales order.
B. Use a planning run to generate a planning order for the sales order.
C. Explode the bill of material and plan dependent demands for the sales order.
D. Use heuristic planning for material reservation of the sales order.
810-403 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
Your customer uses make-to-order production and assembly. When an item is deleted
from a sales order, the production order for this item is not deleted. What do you
identify as the reason?
A. The stock level is high enough that the receipt is not necessary for order fulfillment.
B. The production order was created manually for the sales order.
C. The production order was created from the sales order.
D. The production order was created through a planning run in PP.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
A customer orders a product with customer specific features. A bill of material and
routing exist, so the product can be produced. Which process ensures that receipts will
be reserved for this sales order?
A. Demand planning in the individual customer segment
B. Sales order check against planning so that the independent customer requirement
will reserve the receipt
C. Order processing without rescheduling with fixed delivery date and quantity
indicator
D. Product allocation for the sales area to limit the availability check
810-403 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 22
Since release 4.5A, you can valuate the materials for the sales order together with the
materials for the make-to-stock inventory. Prerequisite is that the costs have been
collected on a specific order. Which one?
A. Sales Order
B. Planned Order
C. Purchase Order
D. Production Order
Answer: D
QUESTION: 23
For which type of products does it makes sense to do an availability check against
forecast?
A. Products for which enough independent demand is available to meet the customer
demand.
B. Bottleneck products.
C. Products for which demand and production planning are strongly connected.
D. Products with low demand.

810-403 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
What is the goal of the planning strategy ‘Planning with final assembly’?
A. To execute the planning once a year
B. To meet the requirements after creating a delivery
C. To trigger the procurement for specific sales orders
D. To trigger the provisioning without a specific sales order
Answer: D
QUESTION: 25
What differentiates consumption based planned and demand-driven planned material?
A. For consumption based planned material, the whole order quantity is always
confirmed.
B. For demand-driven planned material, the whole order quantity is always confirmed.
C. For consumption based planned material, a production order is always created.
D. For demand-driven planned material, a production order is always created.
810-403 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
What is the main goal of introducing the make-to-stock process?
A. To enable planning for a long period
B. To be independent from customers orders
C. To be always able to deliver
D. To have a high efficiency
Answer: C
QUESTION: 27
Your customer has implemented a manual order-to-cash process. What is required to
automate order creation and processing?

A. Set up EDI input handling and automate background jobs.
B. Implement a user exit and automate copy control.
C. Set up EDI input handling and automate pricing.
D. Automate background jobs and copy control.
810-403 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
How do you recommend reducing delivery delays in the supply chain to avoid
increased cost and customer dissatisfaction?
A. Improve the service level by increasing the safety stock.
B. Introduce supplier and vendor managed inventory.
C. Outsource component manufacturing to the suppliers.
D. Increase stock monitoring through online ATP check.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
What is a result of introducing EDI?
A. Increased billing performance
B. Increased data quality
C. Increased reporting capabilities
D. Increased delivery performance
810-403 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
A company asks for an automatic availability check for stock in different locations.
Which SAP solution do you recommend that they introduce?
A. ECC
B. SCM
C. CRM
D. BI
Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis

Answer: C
Explanation:
Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by the modern
business organizations. These methods have different features and characteristics. Therefore,
each selection method is best for different organizations. Although there are many differences
between these project selection methods, usually the underlying concepts and principles are the
same. Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and
Constrained Optimization methods). As the value of one 810-403 dumps project would need to be compared
against the other projects, you could use the benefit measurement methods. This could include
various techniques, of which the following are the most common.
• You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project
objectives to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in each of
these criteria, and then choose the project with the highest score.
• When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is
ascertained by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The higher
the present value of the project, the better it would be for your organization.
• The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you
need to be looking for a high rate of return from the project.
The mathematical approach is commonly used for larger projects. The constrained
optimization methods require several calculations in order to decide on whether or not a project
should be rejected.
Cost-benefit analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their selections.
Going by this method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the project, which
is the benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the benefits. Based on
the results you receive for different projects, you could choose which option would be the most
viable and financially rewarding.
These 810-403 dumps benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and quantified in order to arrive at a
proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider asking are in the selection process
are:
1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run?
2. How long will the equipment last for?
3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along?
In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost –
When choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would make if
you do decide to go ahead with the project.
Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal. You need to consider the difference between
the profits of the project you are primarily interested in, and the next best alternative.

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Cisco, ICND2

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Latest Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#

1.International Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Instructions for Candidates:
This examination is in THREE sections.
Section A Has TEN compulsory multiple-choice questions, worth 2 marks each.
Section B Has SIX compulsory short-answer questions, worth 5 marks each.
Section C Has THREE compulsory longer-answer questions. Questions 17 and
18 are worth 15 marks each. Question 19 is worth 20 marks.
1. Do not open this question paper until instructed by the 200-105 exam invigilator.
2. All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.
3. All rough work and notes should also be written in the answer booklet.
2.SECTION A
Questions 1 ¨¬C 10 are multiple choice questions. For each question, select ONE correct answer from A to
D and write it in your answer booklet. You are advised to spend approximately 30 minutes on this section.
3.Q1. Which of the following measures could be used to verify the effectiveness of stores management?
A. Value of credits taken
B. Value of credit given
C. Value of stock orders placed
D. Value of stock damaged
200-105 dumps Answer: B
4.Q2. Which of the following does the abbreviation ROE normally refer to?
A. Return on equity
B. Restoration of equipment
C. Results of effectiveness
D. Recycling operational efficiency
Answer: B
5.Q3. Which of the following is an appropriate measure of customer service in a stores environment?
A. Accuracy of stock-turns
B. Accuracy of stock checks
C. Accuracy of first time picks
D. Accuracy of stock positioning
200-105 pdf Answer: C
6.Q4. Which of the following would be considered the best method of improving the quality of goods
received?
A. Implementation of ISO14001
B. A performance measurement agreement
C. A call off agreement
D. A financial penalty scheme

Answer: D
7.Q5. Which of the following is most likely to improve the overall efficiency of a purchasing office?
A. Use of vendor rating systems
B. Use of SMART controllers
C. Use of blanket orders
D. Use of wider base of suppliers
200-105 vce Answer: A
8.Q6. A buyer is concerned about improving the cost of materials received.
Which of the following would be considered the best means of assessing current purchasing
performance?
A. Comparisons with industry index numbers
B. Inflation assessment calculations
C. Cost/profit volume analysis
D. Negotiation with existing suppliers
Answer: A
9.Q7. Which of the following is the most often quoted benefit of joint performance measurement and
relationship building techniques?
A. Supplier base enlargement
B. More understanding of the supply chain
C. More varied problems
D. More professional development
200-105 exam Answer: D
10.Q8. Shows Image:
11.Q9. Which of the following would be the expected outcome of entering into a consignment stock
agreement with a supplier?
A. A reduction in stock value reported in the financial accounts system
B. A reduction to the capital base of the supplier
C. A reduction in the purchaser’s payment terms
D. An improvement in the debtor portfolio of the buying company
Answer: B
12.Q10. Which of the following adds value to procurement activities?
A. A large supplier database
B. A narrow supplier database
C. An organised and defined supplier database
D. An unstructured supplier database
200-105 dumps Answer: A
13.Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of an investigation for employee misconduct?
A. To determine whether company rules have been violated
B. To ascertain whether company policies have been violated
C. To catalog information about employees that might be derogatory for future use
D. To determine if state laws have been violated
E. To determine if federal laws have been violated
Answer: C
14.The investigation’s best approach to questioning relies on the following:
A. Most suspects will lie or circumvent the truth.
B. A suspect is innocent until proven guilty.
C. A key suspect is guilty and evidence must be found.
D. A signed statement in the form of a confession must be obtained.
E. None of the above.
200-105 pdf Answer: B
15.Some facts about drug users that may assist in recognizing problem areas during a drug investigation
are set forth as follows. Indicate the one that is erroneous.
A. The only common characteristic is that drug abusers use drugs to a point where they feel they can no
longer manage without its support.
B. The adult abuser of drugs commonly has a history of social maladjustment.
C. Drug abuse is concentrated in but not confined to “slum area of large cities.
D. Those who can afford to buy drugs without resorting to crime are less likely to be arrested for drug
violations.
E. Chronic abuse of drugs is generally not considered a symptom of mental or emotional illness.
Answer: E
16.A craving for a drug is exhibited often by the following:
A. Water running from nose or eyes
B. Frequent yawning or sneezing
C. Continual itching of arms and legs
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
200-105 vce Answer: D
17.A narcotic addict is sometimes called:
A. A bingo
B. A geezer
C. A hophead
D. A pop
E. A bagman
Answer: C
18.One whose sexual desires are directed to both men and women is known as a:

A. Lesbian
B. Bisexual
C. Homosexual
D. Transvestite
E. None of the above
200-105 exam Answer: B
19.When it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation all of the following should be avoided
except:
A. Using street language
B. Giving the impression of being avid to develop the facts
C. Leaving the impression you suspect subject of being a sex deviate
D. Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own word
E. None of the above
Answer: D
20.In conducting gambling investigations, the security officer should
A. Cooperate with local, county, state, or federal law enforcement B.
Not use undercover operatives
C. Wiretap the employee’s home phone
D. Search the lockers of all suspects
E. None of the above
200-105 dumps Answer: A
21.Which of the following investigative resources should not normally be used in a gambling investigation
conducted by a proprietary investigative force?
A. Closed-circuit TV cameras
B. Undercover operatives
C. Telephone surveillance
D. Fluorescent powder
E. Physical surveillances
Answer: C
22.In an investigation concerning regulations of common carriers in interstate commerce or investigation
of railroad accidents, a good source of information would be the:
A. Federal Bureau of Investigation
B. Bureau of Customs
C. Federal Trade Commission
D. Interstate Commerce Commission
E. General Accounting Office
Answer:
200-105 pdf
23.In investigating homicide and suicide, the best source of information would probably be the:
A. County coroner’s office

B. Health office
C. State attorney general’s office D.
Federal Bureau of Investigation E.
Sheriff’s office
Answer: A
24.To obtain information concerning marriage licenses, an investigator would contact the:
A. Appropriate health department
B. Tax bureau
C. Bureau of Vital Statistics
D. Appropriate court
E. Social Security Office
200-105 vce Answer: C
25.In conducting a “claim” investigation where the claim is a serious one and where there is cause for
doubt in connection with the loss or claim, the type of investigation to be used is:
A. Telephone
B. Mail
C. Personal contact
D. Undercover
E. Clandestine
Answer: C
26.One of the following is not one of the desired characteristics of a statement obtained during a claim
investigation:
A. It should be written in ink or indelible pencil, or typed.
B. It must be dated.
C. It should be in short paragraphs with two spaces between each paragraph.
D. It may be signed or unsigned.
E. It must contain the identification of the person making it.
200-105 dumps Answer: C
27.A sudden, violent, and noisy eruption, outburst, or discharge by material acted upon with force, such as
fire, shock, or electrical charge, which causes the material, either solid or liquid, to convert into gas and
violently expand or burst is the definition of:
A. A flash fire
B. An explosion
C. A detonation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 182

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Latest Cisco 642-998 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#16-44

QUESTION 16
Which three actions can be performed in a data center access layer based on a unified fabric? (Choose
three.)
A. QoS traffic classification
B. QoS traffic queuing
C. routing summarization
D. IGMP snooping
E. routing redistribution
F. traffic compression
642-998 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Which two options are valid for Layer 3 connectivity between Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM and VEM?
(Choose two.)
A. an out-of-band management interface
B. a dedicated control interface
C. a virtual Ethernet interface
D. a dedicated packet interface
E. a VMware vCenter virtual machine virtual interface
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

Which item is a valid IPv6 Link Local address?
A. 2001:4070:1:1408::2
B. fe80::41dc:79e1:5c7b:b270
C. d772:4f0b:aaec:e8f0:fde9::8dcd:a2ec
D. 0718:564a:dc94::9a34:9fc6:5b3b
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
DRAG DROP

642-998 dumps

Correct Answer:
642-998 dumps

QUESTION 20
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
Which two devices would you recommend to implement at the EoR in your data center design for access
layer connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series
B. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 4000 Series
D. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series
642-998 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 24
What represents a feature to secure OSPF routing exchanges?
A. OSPF peer authentication
B. OSPF route authentication
C. OSPF process authentication
D. OSPF database exchange authentication
642-998 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which data center monitoring tool can collect and display per port Layer 2 statistics?
A. Cisco DCNM

B. Cisco NAM
C. Cisco NetFlow
D. Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which document is the least relevant as an output deliverable from the design phase?
A. high-level design
B. site requirements specification
C. configurations
D. migration plan
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which performance characteristic is least likely to require being addressed in the data center solution
requirements?
A. server virtualization
B. desktop virtualization
C. distributed computing
D. private cloud
E. power efficiency
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which item can be used as an alternative reconnaissance tool to the NetApp OnCommand Balance
application?
A. NetIQ PlateSpin
B. VKernel vOPS
C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
D. VMware vCenter Orchestrator plug-in
E. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Which design steps could be considered optional?
A. audit
B. solution sizing
C. analysis
D. deployment provision
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which technology differentiates a data center designed around Cisco equipment versus another vendor?
A. NPV
B. NPIV
C. VSANs
D. FCoE
642-998 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which two characteristics are associated with the core layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose two.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 32
The ANSI restriction that only 239 Fibre Channel domains are allowed per SAN fabric creates challenges
for the designer working on a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network.
Which two approaches can the designer utilize to restrict the number of Fibre Channel domains below
239? (Choose two.)
A. Daisy chain up to 100 core Fibre Channel switches, leaving 139 domains for the network edge.
B. Assign a domain ID for each blade switch and top-of-rack access layer switch.
C. Use NPV to cause a fabric or blade switch to appear as a host to the core Fibre Channel switch.
D. Migrate to FCoE to eliminate the need for Fibre Channel domains.
E. Utilize VSANs to allow scaling well beyond 239 domain IDs.
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 33
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified
Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 34
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 35
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center
environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data
center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines

C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
642-998 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 42
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 43
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure?
(Choose two.)
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: AC

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CCNA Security, Cisco

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Latest Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#16-31

QUESTION 16
What term is best described as examining the entire organization to simplify or eliminate unnecessary
processes with the goal of increasing customer satisfaction through improvements in efficiency?

A. Reengineering
B. Corporate restructuring
C. Workforce reduction
D. Mergers and acquisitions
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 17
You need to participate in enterprise risk management and complete an HR-audit. Which of the following is
the best definition of an HR-audit in regard to risk management?
A. Identify the total number of employees in the organization
B. Identify the competency of employees in each areas of the organization
C. Identify the total number of employees by years of employment in the organization and verify their
experience, education, and skills
D. Identify the HR areas that may be out of compliance with legal requirements
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 18
As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with many laws and the process of how laws come into
existence. One type of law is an administrative law. Which of the following is NOT an example of an
administrative law?
A. Agency rules and regulations
B. Executive orders
C. Agency orders
D. Corporate governance
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 19
John is the Senior HR Professional for his organization and he’s reviewing his company’s code of conduct.
Which of the following statements best describes a code of conduct?
A. A code of conduct is a statement of behaviors that the organization expects from its employees.
B. A code of conduct is a statement of ideal standards that the organization is committed to uphold in its
business practices.
C. A code of conduct is a statement of ideal standards that the shareholders are expected to uphold in its
business practices.

D. A code of conduct is a statement of behaviors that the employees expect from its management.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 20
As a Senior HR Professional, you may have to work with the board of directors on some organizational
issues and goals. How does the board of directors come into existence?
A. The founder of the organization chooses the members of the board.
B. The members of the board are hired just like all employees.
C. The shareholders of the company elect the board of directors.
D. Regulations, laws, and policies determine who is eligible to serve on the board of directors.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 21
As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with the Balanced Scorecard. Which perspective of
the Balanced Scorecard describes the criticality of customer focus and customer satisfaction?
A. Learning and growth
B. Business process
C. Customer
D. Financial
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 22
The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRAA) requires which of the following?
A. All contractors must list all job openings with state employment agencies.
B. All employers must list all job openings with state employment agencies.
C. State employment agencies must give preference to Vietnam veterans for senior-level management
position referrals.
D. State employment agencies must give preference to Vietnam veterans for positions lasting 3 days or
longer.
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer option D is correct.VEVRAA applies to government contractors and requires that all job openings

be listed with state employment agencies except those that will be filled from within, are for senior-level
management positions, or will last less than 3 days. See Chapter 4 for more information.
Chapter: Workforce Planning and Employment
Objective: Federal Employment Legislation
QUESTION 23
Mike is the HR Professional for his organization and he’s documenting the relationship of contractors and
employees in the organization. Mike is focusing on the control aspects as provided by the Internal
Revenue Service. What aspect of the contractor control aspect is best described as how the business pays
the worker?
A. Financial control
B. Behavioral control
C. Type of relationship
D. Contractual relationship
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References:
QUESTION 24
You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. January 1 of each year
B. September 30 of each year
C. April 15 of each year
D. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 25
Mark is an HR Professional for his organization and he has been given the assignment to create an
Affirmative Action Plan for his company. Mark will also be considered to be designated the responsibility
for this Affirmative Action Plan. What does the designation of responsibility mean?
A. It means that Mark will be the person that reports on the plan’s implementation to management
B. It means that Mark will be the person responsible for actually implementing the plan
C. It means that Mark will be the person that reports on the plan’s implementation to the Department of
Labor
D. It means that Mark will be the manager for all Affirmative Action scenarios and issues within his
company
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 26
What act prohibits discrimination on the basis of physical and mental disabilities?
A. ADEA of 1967
B. Rehabilitation Act of 1973
C. VEVRAA of 1974
D. IRCA of 1986
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 27
You are a HR Professional for your organization and your supervisor is asking you about the details of the
Civil Rights Act of 1991, and what it means to your company. He wants to know what the total damages
could be if an organization is found liable by a jury trial. What is the maximum amount that could be
awarded to a victim of discrimination if the organization is found liable?
A. $50,000
B. $300,000
C. $500,000
D. There is no limited amount as the jury can determine damages
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 28
As a Senior HR Professional, you must be familiar with certain legal terms, laws, and regulations that affect
how you and others operate in the workplace. One term is protected class. Which of the following
statements best describes a protected class?
A. A group of people who share a common characteristic and who are protected from discrimination and
harassment on the basis of that shared characteristic.
B. A group of people who share a common characteristic and who are exempt from discrimination
regulations on the basis of that shared characteristic.
C. A group of people who do not share a common characteristic and who are not protected from
discrimination and harassment on the basis of that shared characteristic.
D. A group of people who share a race and who are protected from discrimination and harassment on the
basis of that race.
210-260 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 29
A church has announced a position for a new minister. One of the requirements of the new minister,
however, is that this person be a member of the faith of the church that is hiring. This is an example of
which of the following in regard to Title VII?

A. Piece-rate system
B. Violation of the Title VII requirements not to discriminate employment based on religion
C. Bona fide occupational qualification
D. Violation of Title VII religious requirements for employment
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 30
What type of analysis in an Affirmative Action Plan would create an organizational chart that includes
information about incumbents’ race, gender, and wages?
A. Job Group Analysis
B. Availability Analysis
C. Utilization Analysis
D. Workforce Analysis
210-260 vce 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:
QUESTION 31
As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with certain precedent-setting cases related to equal
employment opportunity. This case focused on the requirement for employees seeking internal transfer or
promotions to possess a high school education and certain scores on aptitude tests. The court found under
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act that the test could disparately impact ethnic minority groups. Which case is
referenced?
A. Griggs versus Duke Power
B. McDonnell Douglas Corp versus Green
C. Washington versus Davis
D. Regents of California versus Bakke
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
References:

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Microsoft, Microsoft Certification

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Exam Code: 70-774
Exam Name: Perform Cloud Data Science with Azure Machine Learning (beta)
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 102

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70-774

Latest Microsoft 70-774 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#1-15

QUESTION 1
The method to define a column in a layout template is:
A. $layout.createColumn()
B. $layout.defineColumn()
C. $processor.processColumn()
D. $layout.addColumn()
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The JavaScript method that executes after all the portlets on the page have finished loading is:
A. Liferay.Portlet.ready(fn)
B. AUI().ready(fn)
C. Liferay.on(‘allPortletsReady’,fn)
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A JSR-286 standard portlet extends:
A. LiferayPortlet
B. MVCPortlet
C. GenericPortlet
D. StrutsPortlet
E. Any Java class
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Thecompanyld” is a(n):
A. Portal instance
B. Organization
C. Site
D. Team
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Site administrators would like to search for web content based on the review date. The review date is not
currently indexed when web content is published. The recommended way to add the review date to the
search index is to:
A. Create an Ext plugin and overwrite the Journal indexer to index the review date
B. Create a hook plugin and override the Journal service to index the review date
C. Create a hook plugin and override the edit article Struts action to index the review date
D. Create a hook plugin and implement an indexer post processor to index the review date
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The recommended way to add new functionality in Liferay is to:
A. Create Ext plugins
B. Createportlet, theme, layout template or hook plugins
C. Modify Liferay’s source code directly
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Instanceable portlets: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. Have unique preferences perportlet
B. Can be added to a page multiple times
C. Share the same data within the same site
D. Can be displayed in the Control Panel
E. Share the same data on the same page
70-774 vce Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
To generate remote services with Service Builder:
A. Pass the switch “-Dremote-service=true” to the Ant “build-service” target
B. Set the attribute “remote-service” to “true” on the “entity” element in service,xml
C. Set the attribute “remote-service” to “true” on the “service-builder” element in service.xml
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
The method to embed the non-instanceable Language portlet with the name “82” in a theme is:
A. $theme.include(“82”)
B. $theme.runtime(“82”)
C. $theme.runtime(“82_INSTANCE_abcl23”)
D. $theme.include(“82_INSTANCE_abcl23”)
70-774 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The method to embed a portlet in a layout template is:
A. $layout.addPortlet()
B. $processor.processPortlet()
C. $layoutembedPortlet()
D. $layout. process PortIet()
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Portlet events are distributed to portlets on different pages by setting the property:
A. portlet.event.distribution=all-pages
B. event.distribution =all-pages
C. portlet.event.distribution=layout-set
D. No specific property setting is required
70-774 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
In a JSP that includes the <liferay-theme: defineObjects /> tag, the method to check permissions is:
A. permissionChecker.hasPermissionO
B. portalUtil.getPermissionChecker().hasPermission()
C. permissionUtil.hasPermission()
D. renderRequest.getPermissionChecker().hasPermission()
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The portlet lifecycle includes the methods: (Please select all correct answers.)
A. destroy ()
B. processEvent()
C. service()
D. render()
E. serveResource()
F. processAction()
70-774 pdf Correct Answer: ABDEF
QUESTION 14
The recommended way to turn off portlet borders in a custom theme is to:
A. Modifyportlet.vm to hide theportletborders
B. Set the theme setting “portlet-setup-show-borders” to “false”
C. Create a JSP hook that overrides port!et_wrapper.jsp to hide theportletborders
D. Set the portal property “portlet.setup.show.borders” tofalse”
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
An Ext plugin should be used to:
A. Create aportlet
B. Create a theme
C. Overwrite a portal JSP file
D. Create a servlet filter
E. Modify coreportletdeployment descriptors
F. Create a web service
70-774 vce Correct Answer: E

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CCNP Collaboration, Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-070
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1(CIPTV1)
Updated: Jul 26, 2017
Q&As: 189
Exam Duration: 75 minutes
Associated Certification: Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration Certification
Number of Question: 55-65 Questions
Exam Technology: Cisco Video Technologies Technology
Pre-Requisites: CCNA Collaboration or any CCIE Certification Certification
Exam Languages: English
Format: Single and Multiple Choice

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Latest Cisco 300-070 Dumps Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (August 2017)#1-15

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps

A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and
the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming
calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications
Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which three steps are needed to enable time-of-day call routing? (Choose three.)
A. Configure an access list.
B. Configure a time period.
C. Configure a time schedule.
D. Configure a route pattern.
E. Configure a partition.
F. Configure dial rules.
G. Configure a calling search space.

300-070 exam Correct Answer: BCG
QUESTION 4
Which three descriptions are true? (Choose three.)
A. The class of service is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 2.
B. The IP precedence is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 2.
C. The differentiated services code point is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at
Layer 2.
D. The class of service is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 3.
E. The IP precedence is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at Layer 3.
F. The differentiated services code point is a parameter that is used for traffic classification and marking at
Layer 3.
Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 5
Which tool can you use to verify and troubleshoot a dial plan?
A. Audit Log Configuration
B. Dialed Number Analyzer
C. CDR Analysis and Reporting
D. Troubleshooting Trace Settings
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which three commands show the output of an active video call? (Choose three.)
A. show vrm active_calls
B. show call active video brief
C. show voip rtp connections
D. show voice call
E. show voice call summary
F. show video dsp
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 7
Which three options can belong to specific partitions? (Choose three.)
A. voice-mail servers
B. directory numbers
C. translation patterns
D. gateways
E. IP phones
F. route patterns
300-070 vce Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 8
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose
two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.

D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Route lists determine the order of preference for route group usage. If a route list is configured, what is the
minimum number of route groups that you must configure?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
H. 8
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default
dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In
what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
300-070 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID
number. Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices.
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across
sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.

C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps

A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed.
Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which
command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.)
A. G.711 codec for audio

B. H.264 codec for video
C. G.729 codec for audio
D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio
E. H.263 codec for video
F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps

Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the
virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B

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MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps, Microsoft

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Jul 08, 2017
Q&As: 86

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Latest Microsoft 70-696 Dumps Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (July 2017)#1-15

QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate
security policy requirements.
What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You need to prepare Server11.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
You need to identify the percentage of Configuration Manager client computers that are missing software
updates released by Microsoft.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence on Server3? To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-696

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the inventory requirements.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-696

QUESTION 6
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
You need to identify on which computers the usage of App2 will be metered.
Which computers should you identify? In the table below, identify on which computers the usage of App2
will be metered. Make only one selection in each row.
Hot Area:

70-696

70-696

QUESTION 8
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.

C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 9
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a deployment
of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
Configuration Manager has the client settings configured as shown in the following table.

70-696

Policy1, Policy2, and Policy3 are deployed to a collection named Collection1.
You need to configure the clients in Collection1 to have a client policy polling interval of 30 minutes.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

70-696

QUESTION 10
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers
are configured as Configuration Manager clients.
You have an existing Configuration Manager deployment of an application named Appl.
App1 is deployed to a collection that contains the client computers in the engineering department.
From Configuration Manager, you add a new application named App2. App2 will replace App1.
You need to prevent further installations of App1 and to ensure that App2 will be installed on the
engineering department computers. App1 must be removed only once App2 is installed.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-696

QUESTION 11
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft
System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You configure Asset Intelligence.
You need to request a catalog update for an inventoried software named App1.
Which category and family should you configure for App1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

70-696

QUESTION 12
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that contains the
objects shown in the following table.

70-696

You are creating a new configuration baseline.
You need to identify which objects you can use as evaluation conditions within the new configuration
baseline.
Which three objects should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Object1
B. Object2
C. Object3
D. Object4
E. Object5
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 13
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains a deployment of Microsoft
System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The Exchange Server connector is deployed.
You need to create a collection that includes only devices that are discovered from Microsoft Exchange
Server.
Which criteria should you add to the collection query rule? To answer, select the appropriate criteria in the
answer area.

70-696 70-696

QUESTION 14
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. All client computers
are configured as Configuration Manager clients.
You need to remediate automatically the client computers that are missing a specific registry key.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-696

QUESTION 15
You create a VPN profile by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager as shown in
the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-696

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.
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JNCIA, Juniper

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Updated: Jun 29, 2017
Q&As: 395

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Latest Juniper JN0-102 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Updated (June 2017)#78-103

QUESTION 78
Which command gracefully shuts down the Junos OS?
A. request system reboot
B. request system logout
C. request system halt
D. restart gracefully
JN0-102 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which action does the ping 172.18.1.1 size 5 command perform?
A. It sends only five ping requests to the 172.18.1.1 destination.
B. It sends a continuous ping with a packet length of five bytes to the 172.18.1.1 destination.
C. It sends five rapid ping requests to the 172.18.1.1 destination.
D. It sends a continuous rapid ping with a packet length of five bytes to the 172.18.1.1 destination.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which command displays the current temperature of a Junos device’s components?
A. show chassis temperature-thresholds
B. show chassis environment
C. show chassis hardware
D. show chassis alarms
JN0-102 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which command would you use to view interface usage details in real time?
A. show interfaces terse
B. show interfaces extensive
C. monitor interface traffic
D. monitor traffic interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 82
What happens when you issue the ping 172.19.102.2 count 5 command?
A. ICMP echo requests are sent to 172.19.102.2 in five-millisecond intervals.
B. ICMP echo requests are sent to 172.19.102.2 until five packets are dropped.
C. ICMP echo requests are sent to 172.19.102.2 five times.
D. ICMP echo requests are sent continuously to 172.19.102.2 for five seconds.
JN0-102 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
You are asked to configure real-time performance monitoring (RPM) between two Junos devices to track
traffic in your network.
Which two application traffic types can you track? (Choose two.)
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 84
You are troubleshooting a routing issue and need to check the hop-by-hop path to the 10.10.10.10
destination.
Which three commands would display the path? (Choose three.)
A. [email protected]# traceroute 10.10.10.10
B. [email protected]> ping record-route 10.10.10.10
C. [email protected]>traceroute 10.10.10.10
D. [email protected]# run traceroute 10.10.10.10
E. [email protected]# ping record-route 10.10.10.10

JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 85
You are asked to free up disk space so you can update your version of the Junos OS.
Which two commands display the files that will be removed? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]> request system storage cleanup
B. [email protected]> show system storage
C. [email protected]> request system storage cleanup dry-run
D. [email protected]> show system storage detail
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 86
Which two commands are used during the password recovery process? (Choose two.)
A. clear system login
B. boot -s
C. recovery
D. delete system root-authentication
JN0-102 dumps 
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 87
You receive an alarm that your Junos device is experiencing problems regarding temperature.
Which two commands would you use to investigate this problem? (Choose two.)
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis pic fpc-slot <value> pic-slot <value>
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 88
— Exhibit —
[edit interfaces ge-0/0/6]
[email protected]# show
{
familyinet {
address 172.16.10.100/24;
address 172.16.10.101/24;
}
}
— Exhibit —
You have two IP addresses configured on the ge-0/0/6 interface, as shown in the exhibit. You want to
select the 172.16.10.101 address as the source address for packets sent from this interface to hosts on a
remote subnet.
Which parameter would you add to the 172.16.10.101 address to complete this task?
A. preferred
B. broadcast
C. primary
D. arp 172.16.10.101

JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
Which routing instance type is used to facilitate filter-based forwarding?
A. VRF
B. FBF
C. forwarding
D. no-forwarding
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which two statements are true about static routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)
A. Static routes are defined at the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.
B. Static routes must have a next hop defined.
C. Static routes remain in the routing table until you remove them or until they become inactive.
D. Static routes are learned by neighboring devices and added to their routing tables.
JN0-102 pdf 
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 91
Which configuration parameter on a Junos device alters the default next-hop resolution behavior of a static
route?
A. no-readvertise
B. resolve
C. preference
D. passive
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true regarding route preference? (Choose two.)
A. Lower preference values are more preferred than higher preference values.
B. You can modify the default preference values for any of the routing information sources.
C. By default, a static route is more preferred than a RIP route.
D. A static route is always preferred over a direct route.
JN0-102 vce 
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 93
Which two statements are true regarding routing tables? (Choose two.)
A. The routing table is populated by the forwarding table.
B. Devices running the Junos OS can accommodate multiple routing tables.
C. Information learned from routing protocols is stored in the routing table.
D. The primary routing table for IPv4 unicast routes is inet.4.
Correct Answer: BC

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